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Pharmacology HESI Practice TEST FINAL EXAM AND
PRACTICE EXAM 20262027 BANK 2 VERSIONS QUESTIONS
WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS
WILL COME FROM HERE (100% CORRECT ANSWERS A+
GRADED
An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch
(Transderm Scop) to prevent motion sickness while on a cruise. Which
information should the nurse provide to the client?
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
B) Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.
C) Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.
D) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise. - ANSWER--A
Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion
sickness and has a peak onset in 6 hours, so the client should be
instructed to apply the patch at least 4 hours before departure (A) on
the cruise ship. The duration of the transdermal patch is 72 hours, so
(B) is not needed. Scolopamine blocks muscarinic receptors in the inner
ear and to the vomiting center, so the best application site of the patch
is behind the ear, not at the base of the skull (C). Anticholinergic
medications are CNS depressants, so the client should be instructed to
avoid alcohol (D) while using the patch.
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Which instruction(s) should the nurse give to a female client who just
received a prescription for oral metronidazole (Flagyl) for treatment of
trichomonas vaginalis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increase fluid intake, especially cranberry juice.
B) Do not abruptly discontinue the medication; taper use.
C) Check blood pressure daily to detect hypertension.
D) Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
E) Use condoms until treatment is completed.
F) Ensure that all sexual partners are treated at the same time. -
ANSWER--A, D, E, F
Increased fluid intake and cranberry juice (A) are recommended for
prevention and treatment of urinary tract infections, which frequently
accompany vaginal infections. It is not necessary to taper use of this
drug (B) or to check the blood pressure daily (C), as this condition is not
related to hypertension. Flagyl can cause a disulfiram-like reaction if
taken in conjunction with ingestion of alcohol, so the client should be
instructed to avoid alcohol (D). All sexual partners should be treated at
the same time (E) and condoms should be used until after treatment is
completed to avoid reinfection (F).
A client receiving Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) intravenously (IV)
complains of pain at the insertion site, and the nurse notes edema at
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the site. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to
implement?
A) Assess for erythema.
B) Administer the antidote.
C) Apply warm compresses.
D) Discontinue the IV fluids. - ANSWER--D
Doxorubicin is an antineoplastic agent that causes inflammation,
blistering, and necrosis of tissue upon extravasation. First, all IV fluids
should be discontinued at the site (D) to prevent further tissue damage
by the vesicant. Erythema is one sign of infiltration and should be
noted, but edema and pain at the infusion site require stopping the IV
fluids (A). Although an antidote may be available (B), additional fluids
contribute to the trauma of the subcutaneous tissues. Depending on
the type of vesicant, warm or cold compresses (C) may be prescribed
after the infusion is discontinued.
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular
weight heparin (LMWH). During administration of the medication, the
client asks the nurse why he is receiving this medication. Which is the
best response for the nurse to provide?
A) This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot
formation.
B) This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
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C) This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs.
D) This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal
wound. - ANSWER--A
Unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an
anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen
to fibrin and is given prophylactically to prevent postoperative venous
thrombosis (A) or to treat pulmonary embolism or deep vein
thrombosis following knee and abdominal surgeries. Heparin does not
dissolve clots but prevents clot extension or further clot formation (C).
The anticoagulant heparin does not prevent infection (B) or influence
operative wound healing (D).
A female client with rheumatoid arthritis take ibuprofen (Motrin) 600
mg PO 4 times a day. To prevent gastrointestinal bleeding, misoprostol
(Cytotec) 100 mcg PO is prescribed. Which information is most
important for the nurse to include in client teaching?
A) Use contraception during intercourse.
B) Ensure the Cytotec is taken on an empty stomach.
C) Encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation.
D) Take Cytotec 30 minutes prior to Motrin. - ANSWER--A
Cytotec, a synthetic form of a prostaglandin, is classified as pregnancy
Category X and can act as an abortifacient, so the client should be
instructed to use contraception during intercourse (A) to prevent loss of
Pharmacology HESI Practice TEST FINAL EXAM AND
PRACTICE EXAM 20262027 BANK 2 VERSIONS QUESTIONS
WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS
WILL COME FROM HERE (100% CORRECT ANSWERS A+
GRADED
An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch
(Transderm Scop) to prevent motion sickness while on a cruise. Which
information should the nurse provide to the client?
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
B) Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.
C) Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.
D) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise. - ANSWER--A
Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion
sickness and has a peak onset in 6 hours, so the client should be
instructed to apply the patch at least 4 hours before departure (A) on
the cruise ship. The duration of the transdermal patch is 72 hours, so
(B) is not needed. Scolopamine blocks muscarinic receptors in the inner
ear and to the vomiting center, so the best application site of the patch
is behind the ear, not at the base of the skull (C). Anticholinergic
medications are CNS depressants, so the client should be instructed to
avoid alcohol (D) while using the patch.
,2|Page
Which instruction(s) should the nurse give to a female client who just
received a prescription for oral metronidazole (Flagyl) for treatment of
trichomonas vaginalis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increase fluid intake, especially cranberry juice.
B) Do not abruptly discontinue the medication; taper use.
C) Check blood pressure daily to detect hypertension.
D) Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
E) Use condoms until treatment is completed.
F) Ensure that all sexual partners are treated at the same time. -
ANSWER--A, D, E, F
Increased fluid intake and cranberry juice (A) are recommended for
prevention and treatment of urinary tract infections, which frequently
accompany vaginal infections. It is not necessary to taper use of this
drug (B) or to check the blood pressure daily (C), as this condition is not
related to hypertension. Flagyl can cause a disulfiram-like reaction if
taken in conjunction with ingestion of alcohol, so the client should be
instructed to avoid alcohol (D). All sexual partners should be treated at
the same time (E) and condoms should be used until after treatment is
completed to avoid reinfection (F).
A client receiving Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) intravenously (IV)
complains of pain at the insertion site, and the nurse notes edema at
,3|Page
the site. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to
implement?
A) Assess for erythema.
B) Administer the antidote.
C) Apply warm compresses.
D) Discontinue the IV fluids. - ANSWER--D
Doxorubicin is an antineoplastic agent that causes inflammation,
blistering, and necrosis of tissue upon extravasation. First, all IV fluids
should be discontinued at the site (D) to prevent further tissue damage
by the vesicant. Erythema is one sign of infiltration and should be
noted, but edema and pain at the infusion site require stopping the IV
fluids (A). Although an antidote may be available (B), additional fluids
contribute to the trauma of the subcutaneous tissues. Depending on
the type of vesicant, warm or cold compresses (C) may be prescribed
after the infusion is discontinued.
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular
weight heparin (LMWH). During administration of the medication, the
client asks the nurse why he is receiving this medication. Which is the
best response for the nurse to provide?
A) This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot
formation.
B) This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
, 4|Page
C) This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs.
D) This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal
wound. - ANSWER--A
Unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an
anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen
to fibrin and is given prophylactically to prevent postoperative venous
thrombosis (A) or to treat pulmonary embolism or deep vein
thrombosis following knee and abdominal surgeries. Heparin does not
dissolve clots but prevents clot extension or further clot formation (C).
The anticoagulant heparin does not prevent infection (B) or influence
operative wound healing (D).
A female client with rheumatoid arthritis take ibuprofen (Motrin) 600
mg PO 4 times a day. To prevent gastrointestinal bleeding, misoprostol
(Cytotec) 100 mcg PO is prescribed. Which information is most
important for the nurse to include in client teaching?
A) Use contraception during intercourse.
B) Ensure the Cytotec is taken on an empty stomach.
C) Encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation.
D) Take Cytotec 30 minutes prior to Motrin. - ANSWER--A
Cytotec, a synthetic form of a prostaglandin, is classified as pregnancy
Category X and can act as an abortifacient, so the client should be
instructed to use contraception during intercourse (A) to prevent loss of
