Academicmaterials

________ investigates EMTALA violations - CMS EMTALA was enacted in 1986 for what purpose? - "Anti-dumping law" - pts cannot be turned away or transferred based on ability to pay T/F: A physician assistant acts as agent of physician and hospital - therefore, under EMTALA - T T/F: Any hospital that accepts Medicare HAS to agree to abide by EMTALA regulations - T T/F: OB pts with contractions are considered unstable until delivery of baby, not necessarily the placenta - F - delivery of bab...

"Anti-Dumping Law" - 1986, any institution compensated by CMS (receiving Medicare/Medicaid money) Appropriate Transfer - Transfer only if medically stable, higher level of care when the benefits of transfer outweigh the risks. If you are transferring to a nursing home or outpatient setting, assure that appropriate arrangements have been made. CMS - Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services Emergency Medical Condition - Life or limb threatening Patient Patient's unborn child Jeopardi...

An emergency medical condition (EMC) is present if - acute symptoms exist of sufficient severty (including pain) any patient who comes to the ED requesting examination or treatment must: - be provided an appropriate medical screening examination to determine/ treat a medical condition - all patients must be entered into ED log - medical screening must be documented Appropriate transfer is a - transfer before stabilization which is legal under EMTALA is one in which all of the following oc...

How can we help and why? - -Patients who spend less time waiting for a test, procedure, or treatment improves patient outcomes and satisfaction and tend not to leave the ED before seeing a treating practitioner. the wait time is so long that patients have actually died waiting for the any additional care beyond the intake and triage information. If patients are moved in and out of the ED quickly, additional patients who need emergency services can be seen and admitted to the hospital or di...

COBRA - Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act; what - a 1986 federal law that allows for the temporary extension of group health coverage to people whose health benefits otherwise would be terminated. (i.e. if you lose your job) Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act; when - 1986 Do employers have to offer COBRA? - > Generally speaking, group health plans maintained by private-sector employers with 20 or more workers are s...

A hospital is required to designate qualified medical personnel to perform MSEs in the Medical Staff bylaws, rules and regulations. - True Hospital A has determined that emergent patient who presented at the emergency department requires a transfer to a higher level of care. Hospital A initiates the transfer request to Hospital B. Hospital B has the higher level of care, but rejects the transfer because the physician on call wants the patient to go to Hospital C as on call physician is on c...

According to the state nonforfeiture law for life insurance policies, insurers must offer at least one of the following nonforfeiture options EXCEPT A) Shortened benefit period B) Reduction of premium C) Reduced paid-up D) Extended term - B) Reduction of premium Correct! Reduction of premium is not a nonforfeiture option (it's a dividend option). The other answer choices are the required nonforfeiture options in life insurance policies issued in this state. All advertisements are the re...

Advertisements - advertising must be accurate and not misrepresent the facts; advertising rules apply to any insurance advertisement intended for presentation, distribution, dissemination or other advertising use when used or made either directly or indirectly by or on behalf of the insurance company; every company must establish and maintain a system of control over the content, form, and method of dissemination of all advertising of its policies; insurer who's policies are advertised is ...

EXSS 181 Bundled Exams and Study Guides 2024/2025 with complete solutions

_______ is defined as focusing on the relevant cues in the environment, maintaining that attentional focus over time, having awareness of the situation and performance errors, and shifting attentional focus as necessary. A. Attention B. Concentration C. Focus D. Awareness - B 4 steps of PST program - 1. Education and assessment: teach importance 2. Acquisition: create strategies for learning skills 3. Practice: 4. Evaluation: did it work? A basketball player mentally rehearsing a free...

"Maybe the nature, content, and delivery of self-talk may not be as important as the individual interpretation of that self talk" is underscoring the notion of... - individual differences *4 Strategies for Increasing Self-Efficacy (that address each of the predictors of self-efficacy)* - 1. Ensure successful experiences (addresses Performance Accomplishments) 2. Use modeling techniques (addresses vicarious experience) 3. Positive communication techniques (addresses verbal persuasion) 4. ...

¨Describe the trait approach to personality. Why are traits a poor predictor of behavior on their own? - A study by Horn (1995) found that more frequent positive feedback was associated with poorer psychological outcomes, and a more critical approach was associated to more positive outcomes for athletes. Explain why this was the case. - -positive reinforcement not contingent -criticism usually followed by technical instruction According to the drive theory, what is the optimal level of aro...

What are 4 steps of the Scientific Method? - - Develop the problem - Formulate Hypothesis - Gather Data - Analyze and Interpret results What are Attributions? - Interpretations or explanations individuals give for success or failure What are Mastery Attempts? - - Sporting Choices - Intensity - Persistence What are the 2 aspects of Cognitive Evaluation Theory and Rewards? - - Controlling Aspect - More controlling = undermine intrinsic motivation Affects autonomy perceptions - Informati...

( inverted u) According to this theory, what is the optimal level of arousal for performing a task? - - performance is optimal at a moderate level of arousal and falls off if athletes are not aroused enough or too aroused (middle) (drive theory) According to this theory, what is the optimal level of arousal for performing a well-learned task? A novel task? - - the relationship between anxiety and performance is direct and linear -Performance of dominant response (i.e., good for expert, poo...

_______ is defined as focusing on the relevant cues in the environment, maintaining that attentional focus over time, having awareness of the situation and performance errors, and shifting attentional focus as necessary. A. Attention B. Concentration C. Focus D. Awareness - B ¨Imagine you are an adolescent athlete, and you find out that a number of your teammates are taking performance-enhancing drugs to try to improve their performance. Provide an example of your moral reasoning proce...

2 characteristics of skilled/effective imagery? - - vividness - controllability 2 Major Components of Fair Play - 1. formal rules 2. unwritten rules 3 potential benefits of mindfulness - - reduce pain - increase happiness and overall well-being - memory increases 4 Components of Attention - 1. focusing on the relevant cues in the environment 2. maintaining attentional focus over time 3. having awareness of the situation and performance errors 4. shifting attentional focus when necessar...

EXSS 276 Bundled Exams and Study Guides 2024/2025 with complete solutions

3 metabolic crossroads - G6P, acetyl coA, pyruvate Acetyl coA is - Big on synthesis Alanine and Glutamine - Take nitrogen from the liver and turn it into glucose again ATP - Body's energy currency Beta-oxidation - Cleaving carbon chain down Deamination - Destroying of an amino acid group Enzymes associated with aerobic glycolysis - PDH Enzymes associated with anaerobic glycolysis - LDH Final products of glycolysis - 2 ATP, 2 NADH H+, 2 pyruvate Gluconeogenesis - Non CHO source to gluco...

Active transport - requires energy; movement low to high Adenylate kinase - phosphotransferase enzyme transferring phosphate groups Anabolism - opposite of catabolism; endothermic Antiporters - move substrates in opposite directions ATP synthase - enzyme that generates ATP from ADP and free Pi Beta Oxidation - breakdown of free atty acid chain; 2 carbons cleaved off to form 1 acetyl CoA; each acetyl coa forms 14 ATP Catabolism - reversible reaction; break down molecules into smaller ones;...

a-vO2 Difference - -what's left at the tissue -5 mL O2/ 100 mL blood Acidosis (Metabolic) - -blood pH < 7.35 -major effect is depression of central nervous system, impairment of transmission of signals (blood pH < 7) -can become disorientated and death is possible -too acidic Acidosis (Respiratory) - -systemic arterial pCO2 > 45 mm Hg -caused by build up of carbon dioxide -airways obstruction, disorders in respiratory muscles -compensations: increased exertion of H+ and reabs...