1. A client is prescribed bupropion for smoking cessation.
Which
side effect is most serious?
A. Dry mouth
B. Insomnia
C. Seizures
D. Weight loss
Answer: C
Rationale: Bupropion lowers seizure threshold. Clients at
risk (e.g.,
with eating disorders) need close monitoring.
2. A client with asthma uses albuterol PRN. Which statement
shows proper understanding?
A. “I use this every morning and night.”
B. “I use this when I’m having shortness of breath.”
C. “I use it with my steroid inhaler at the same time.”
D. “I use this even if I’m not having symptoms.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol is a rescue inhaler used during asthma
attacks
or acute symptoms.
3. A client is prescribed loratadine for seasonal allergies.
What is
A. key difference from diphenhydramine?
A. Loratadine causes more drowsiness
B. Loratadine causes GI upset
C. Loratadine is non-sedating
D. Loratadine is only available IV
Answer: C
,Rationale: Second-generation antihistamines like loratadine
are
non-sedating.
4. A client uses sublingual nitroglycerin. Which instruction
is
correct?
A. Swallow the pill with water
B. Take up to 3 doses, 5 minutes apart
C. Store it in a warm area
D. Use it once weekly
Answer: B
Rationale: For chest pain, take 1 tablet every 5 minutes, up
to 3
doses, and call 911 if no relief after the first.
5. A client is taking diphenhydramine. Which side effect is
most
likely?
A. Hypertension
B. Drowsiness
C. Diarrhea
D. Insomnia
Answer: B
Rationale: First-generation antihistamines like
diphenhydramine
cause sedation and drowsiness.
6. A client taking carbidopa/levodopa reports facial
twitching
and eye spasms. What should the nurse do?
A. Reassure the client this is expected
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
, C. Administer diphenhydramine
D. Document and continue monitoring
Answer: B
Rationale: Facial twitching and spasms are signs of toxicity.
Notify
the provider to adjust dosage.
7. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry
mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
8. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
9. A nurse monitors a client taking lamotrigine. What
adverse
effect should prompt discontinuation?
A. Rash
Which
side effect is most serious?
A. Dry mouth
B. Insomnia
C. Seizures
D. Weight loss
Answer: C
Rationale: Bupropion lowers seizure threshold. Clients at
risk (e.g.,
with eating disorders) need close monitoring.
2. A client with asthma uses albuterol PRN. Which statement
shows proper understanding?
A. “I use this every morning and night.”
B. “I use this when I’m having shortness of breath.”
C. “I use it with my steroid inhaler at the same time.”
D. “I use this even if I’m not having symptoms.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol is a rescue inhaler used during asthma
attacks
or acute symptoms.
3. A client is prescribed loratadine for seasonal allergies.
What is
A. key difference from diphenhydramine?
A. Loratadine causes more drowsiness
B. Loratadine causes GI upset
C. Loratadine is non-sedating
D. Loratadine is only available IV
Answer: C
,Rationale: Second-generation antihistamines like loratadine
are
non-sedating.
4. A client uses sublingual nitroglycerin. Which instruction
is
correct?
A. Swallow the pill with water
B. Take up to 3 doses, 5 minutes apart
C. Store it in a warm area
D. Use it once weekly
Answer: B
Rationale: For chest pain, take 1 tablet every 5 minutes, up
to 3
doses, and call 911 if no relief after the first.
5. A client is taking diphenhydramine. Which side effect is
most
likely?
A. Hypertension
B. Drowsiness
C. Diarrhea
D. Insomnia
Answer: B
Rationale: First-generation antihistamines like
diphenhydramine
cause sedation and drowsiness.
6. A client taking carbidopa/levodopa reports facial
twitching
and eye spasms. What should the nurse do?
A. Reassure the client this is expected
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
, C. Administer diphenhydramine
D. Document and continue monitoring
Answer: B
Rationale: Facial twitching and spasms are signs of toxicity.
Notify
the provider to adjust dosage.
7. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry
mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
8. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
9. A nurse monitors a client taking lamotrigine. What
adverse
effect should prompt discontinuation?
A. Rash
