NR509 FINAL EXAM REVIEW 2026 | COMPREHENSIVE
NURSING STUDY GUIDE | EXAM PREPARATION
1. Describe the characteristics of lesions that would be expected in a patient
with condyloma acuminata during a speculum examination.
The lesions are often ulcerated and painful to the touch.
The lesions are crusty and scabbed over.
The lesions are usually flat and smooth without any irregularities.
The lesions are typically raised, friable, and may appear lobed.
2. This prevention approach focuses on healthy individuals who potentially
could be at risk for a particular health problem with a goal of preventing
health problems from occurring.
Secondary prevention
Tertiary prevention
Primary prevention
3. Describe the role of the oculomotor nerve in the context of pupil response
and how an injury might affect this function.
The oculomotor nerve is involved in hearing; injury affects auditory
perception but not vision.
The oculomotor nerve is responsible for vision clarity; injury affects
sharpness but not pupil size.
The oculomotor nerve controls the constriction of the pupil and the
movement of the eye; injury can lead to uneven pupils and
sensitivity to light.
The oculomotor nerve regulates tear production; injury causes dry
eyes but not pupil changes.
,4. A 64-year-old retired architect presents to his primary care provider with a
magazine article about prostate cancer screening that states, "You should
talk to your doctor about the ups and downs of prostate cancer screening."
The patient hands this to the clinician and states, "Tell me about the ups and
down of prostate screening." Which of the following is true about prostate
cancer screening?
Most prostate cancers are palpable and symptomatic by the time they
are biopsied, reducing the need for screening as patients can report
symptoms.
Setting normal cut-offs for prostate-specific antigen (PSA) testing
relies on balancing the risk of overdiagnosis with the risk of
underdiagnosis.
Regardless of sensitivity and specificity of testing modalities,
screening for prostate cancer should always be ordered due to the
malignant nature of the disease.
The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) cut-off of 4.0 ng/ml is virtually
100% specific for aggressive prostate cancer.
The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) effectively differentiates
aggressively malignant prostate tumors from indolent cases.
5. In a clinical scenario, if a 79-year-old male presents with hearing loss during a
HEENT assessment, what would be an appropriate follow-up action?
Schedule a follow-up appointment in one year.
Prescribe antibiotics immediately.
Advise the patient to avoid loud noises.
Refer the patient for a hearing evaluation.
,6. What type of speech disorder is characterized by both receptive and
expressive aphasia?
Broca's aphasia
Wernicke's aphasia
Global aphasia
Anomic aphasia
7. Describe why sudden onset headaches might indicate a more serious
underlying condition.
They are usually harmless and can be treated with over-the-counter
medication.
They typically indicate dehydration and can be resolved with fluid
intake.
They are often related to stress and do not require further
investigation.
Sudden onset headaches can indicate conditions such as a stroke or
aneurysm, which require immediate medical attention.
8. Describe how anal fissures and oral sores can be indicative of a systemic
condition.
Anal fissures are typically caused by dietary choices and do not
indicate any underlying disease.
Anal fissures and oral sores can indicate Crohn's disease, which is a
systemic inflammatory condition affecting the gastrointestinal tract.
Oral sores are a common symptom of dehydration, not related to
gastrointestinal issues.
, Anal fissures are unrelated to systemic conditions and are purely local
injuries.
9. Ptosis is also known as drooping of eyelid is usually seen in what cranial
nerve lesion?
CN 3
CN 6
CN 1
CN 2
10. Describe the typical presentation of a patient experiencing biliary colic.
A patient with biliary colic typically presents with skin rash and
headache.
A patient with biliary colic often shows signs of joint swelling and
fatigue.
A patient with biliary colic usually has a persistent cough and fever.
A patient with biliary colic typically presents with severe,
intermittent abdominal pain, often in the right upper quadrant, and
may experience nausea.
11. The muscles in the erector spinae group are:
longissimus, spinalis, iliocostalis
iliocostalis, rotatores, semispinalis
multifidus, semispinalis, longissimus
spinalis, longissimus, rotatores
NURSING STUDY GUIDE | EXAM PREPARATION
1. Describe the characteristics of lesions that would be expected in a patient
with condyloma acuminata during a speculum examination.
The lesions are often ulcerated and painful to the touch.
The lesions are crusty and scabbed over.
The lesions are usually flat and smooth without any irregularities.
The lesions are typically raised, friable, and may appear lobed.
2. This prevention approach focuses on healthy individuals who potentially
could be at risk for a particular health problem with a goal of preventing
health problems from occurring.
Secondary prevention
Tertiary prevention
Primary prevention
3. Describe the role of the oculomotor nerve in the context of pupil response
and how an injury might affect this function.
The oculomotor nerve is involved in hearing; injury affects auditory
perception but not vision.
The oculomotor nerve is responsible for vision clarity; injury affects
sharpness but not pupil size.
The oculomotor nerve controls the constriction of the pupil and the
movement of the eye; injury can lead to uneven pupils and
sensitivity to light.
The oculomotor nerve regulates tear production; injury causes dry
eyes but not pupil changes.
,4. A 64-year-old retired architect presents to his primary care provider with a
magazine article about prostate cancer screening that states, "You should
talk to your doctor about the ups and downs of prostate cancer screening."
The patient hands this to the clinician and states, "Tell me about the ups and
down of prostate screening." Which of the following is true about prostate
cancer screening?
Most prostate cancers are palpable and symptomatic by the time they
are biopsied, reducing the need for screening as patients can report
symptoms.
Setting normal cut-offs for prostate-specific antigen (PSA) testing
relies on balancing the risk of overdiagnosis with the risk of
underdiagnosis.
Regardless of sensitivity and specificity of testing modalities,
screening for prostate cancer should always be ordered due to the
malignant nature of the disease.
The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) cut-off of 4.0 ng/ml is virtually
100% specific for aggressive prostate cancer.
The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) effectively differentiates
aggressively malignant prostate tumors from indolent cases.
5. In a clinical scenario, if a 79-year-old male presents with hearing loss during a
HEENT assessment, what would be an appropriate follow-up action?
Schedule a follow-up appointment in one year.
Prescribe antibiotics immediately.
Advise the patient to avoid loud noises.
Refer the patient for a hearing evaluation.
,6. What type of speech disorder is characterized by both receptive and
expressive aphasia?
Broca's aphasia
Wernicke's aphasia
Global aphasia
Anomic aphasia
7. Describe why sudden onset headaches might indicate a more serious
underlying condition.
They are usually harmless and can be treated with over-the-counter
medication.
They typically indicate dehydration and can be resolved with fluid
intake.
They are often related to stress and do not require further
investigation.
Sudden onset headaches can indicate conditions such as a stroke or
aneurysm, which require immediate medical attention.
8. Describe how anal fissures and oral sores can be indicative of a systemic
condition.
Anal fissures are typically caused by dietary choices and do not
indicate any underlying disease.
Anal fissures and oral sores can indicate Crohn's disease, which is a
systemic inflammatory condition affecting the gastrointestinal tract.
Oral sores are a common symptom of dehydration, not related to
gastrointestinal issues.
, Anal fissures are unrelated to systemic conditions and are purely local
injuries.
9. Ptosis is also known as drooping of eyelid is usually seen in what cranial
nerve lesion?
CN 3
CN 6
CN 1
CN 2
10. Describe the typical presentation of a patient experiencing biliary colic.
A patient with biliary colic typically presents with skin rash and
headache.
A patient with biliary colic often shows signs of joint swelling and
fatigue.
A patient with biliary colic usually has a persistent cough and fever.
A patient with biliary colic typically presents with severe,
intermittent abdominal pain, often in the right upper quadrant, and
may experience nausea.
11. The muscles in the erector spinae group are:
longissimus, spinalis, iliocostalis
iliocostalis, rotatores, semispinalis
multifidus, semispinalis, longissimus
spinalis, longissimus, rotatores
