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UTA NURS 5315 Advanced Pathophysiology Exam 1 Practice Questions | 100 MCQs with Answers & Rationales

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Prepare for NURS 5315 Exam 1 with 100 original multiple-choice questions covering cellular injury, genetics, inflammation, fluid and electrolyte imbalances, and acid–base disorders. Includes detailed explanations to strengthen graduate-level pathophysiology knowledge and clinical reasoning.

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PASSPOINT PRO | GRADUATE NURSING




NURS 5315
Advanced Pathophysiology
Exam 1 Practice Exam
Cellular Injury, Genetics, Inflammation, and Acid-Base; clinical case questions
emphasizing mechanisms, distinguishing findings, diagnostic patterns, and
progression.




100 A-D 100
Practice Questions Multiple Choice Explained Answers




Original study and revision material • PassPoint Pro

, NURS 5315 • Exam 1 Practice Exam




Exam 1 Practice Exam
Focus: Cellular Injury, Genetics, Inflammation, and Acid-Base; clinical case questions emphasizing mechanisms,
distinguishing findings, diagnostic patterns, and progression.

Instructions: Choose the single best answer from A–D for every question. Complete the questions first, then use
the answer key and detailed explanations at the end.




1. A hospitalized patient with small-cell lung carcinoma has low serum sodium and
concentrated urine. Which diagnostic signature is most consistent with these findings?
A. Low serum osmolality with urine osmolality not maximally suppressed
B. Serum potassium rises and ECG may show peaked T waves
C. Arterial pH falls as PaCO2 increases
D. Arterial pH rises as PaCO2 decreases



2. A patient with years of hypertension develops thickened left ventricular walls. What is
the most likely causal pathway?
A. Chronic acid exposure drives adaptive replacement of squamous epithelium
B. Chronic pressure overload causes cardiac myocyte hypertrophy
C. A single pathogenic allele can produce the phenotype
D. Disease arises when both alleles carry pathogenic variants



3. A damaged epithelial cell shrinks and fragments without nearby inflammatory infiltration.
Which eventual outcome is most closely linked with this process?
A. Scar formation follows inflammatory clearance of the infarct
B. Microvascular dysfunction can impair effective tissue perfusion
C. Phagocytic removal occurs with minimal inflammation
D. A persistent cystic defect replaces destroyed brain tissue



4. A patient develops urticaria, wheezing, and hypotension minutes after peanut exposure.
Which additional feature would most strongly support this interpretation?
A. Early neutrophilic infiltration with local edema
B. Epithelioid macrophages and multinucleated giant cells organize into granulomas
C. Recurrent meningococcal infection despite otherwise preserved immunity
D. Rapid onset of hives, bronchospasm, and vascular leak



5. A patient develops an itchy rash 48 hours after touching nickel jewelry. Which later
consequence follows logically from this process?
A. Persistent exposure may cause chronic eczematous inflammation
B. Rapidly progressive renal failure may develop
C. Hypokalemia and dysrhythmia risk may worsen
D. Glomerular damage and organ dysfunction may progress




UTA • Advanced Pathophysiology • PassPoint Pro Page 2

, NURS 5315 • Exam 1 Practice Exam




6. A patient with years of hypertension develops thickened left ventricular walls. Which
investigation result would most support the working explanation?
A. Each child of a heterozygous affected parent has a 50 percent inheritance risk
B. Increased left ventricular mass on echocardiography
C. Two carrier parents have a 25 percent affected-child risk per pregnancy
D. Biopsy demonstrates intestinal-type cells above the gastroesophageal junction



7. A patient develops urticaria, wheezing, and hypotension minutes after peanut exposure.
Which eventual outcome is most closely linked with this process?
A. Congenital heart disease and developmental difficulties may coexist
B. Fibrosis and tissue destruction can accompany chronic infection
C. Anaphylactic shock and airway compromise can occur
D. A localized abscess may form if the infection is not contained



8. A young adult has recurrent invasive Neisseria infections. What objective result best
aligns with this process?
A. Karyotype commonly shows 47 chromosomes with trisomy 21
B. Neutrophils predominate in many early bacterial exudates
C. Tryptase may rise after systemic mast-cell activation
D. Reduced terminal complement-mediated bacterial lysis



9. A newborn has characteristic features and cytogenetic testing reveals three chromosome
21 copies. Which diagnostic signature is most consistent with these findings?
A. Karyotype commonly shows 47 chromosomes with trisomy 21
B. Reduced terminal complement-mediated bacterial lysis
C. Activated macrophages are surrounded by T lymphocytes
D. Tryptase may rise after systemic mast-cell activation



10. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis has deep breathing and fruity breath. Which
laboratory, imaging, or physiologic pattern should be anticipated?
A. Patch testing can reproduce a delayed cutaneous reaction
B. Low bicarbonate with acidemia and elevated anion gap
C. Elevated bicarbonate with low urinary chloride in a chloride-depleted state
D. Complement levels can fall during active immune-complex disease



11. Several siblings inherit a mitochondrial disorder from their affected mother. Which
measured abnormality would reinforce this interpretation?
A. Increased left ventricular mass on echocardiography
B. Biopsy demonstrates intestinal-type cells above the gastroesophageal junction
C. Heteroplasmy produces variable severity among maternally related relatives
D. Two carrier parents have a 25 percent affected-child risk per pregnancy




UTA • Advanced Pathophysiology • PassPoint Pro Page 3

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