ATI Maternal-Newborn Test 2–Style Practice Questions
2026–2027 | 110 ORIGINAL PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Original ATI-style practice emphasizing postpartum, neonate, and integrated clinical judgment. Not an ATI assessment.
Independent educational study material. These are original practice questions, not official Southern Utah University, ATI,
faculty, or licensing examination materials. Similar core concepts appear in multiple files to reinforce learning.
Clinical safety note: Use institutional protocols and current professional guidance. Questions are designed for learning and
are not a substitute for medical decision-making or individualized orders.
Study map
Domain Questions in this document
Antepartum and prenatal care 18
Labor and delivery 21
Postpartum nursing 27
Newborn assessment and care 30
High-risk and obstetric/neonatal emergencies 14
How to use this resource
Cover the green answer and yellow-highlighted rationale, select A–D, then review the explanation. Mark missed concepts
and revisit the corresponding clinical area. The answer key at the end provides a rapid self-check.
High-yield current guidance checkpoints
• GBS screening: ACOG universal vaginal–rectal culture at 36 0/7–37 6/7 weeks, with intrapartum prophylaxis when
indicated.
• Maternal immunization: Tdap at 27–36 weeks in every pregnancy; Pfizer Abrysvo maternal RSV at 32 0/7–36 6/7 weeks
in the recommended U.S. season.
• Preeclampsia: systolic pressure ≥160 mm Hg or diastolic ≥110 mm Hg is severe range; monitor for headache, visual
symptoms, pulmonary edema and upper-abdominal pain.
• PPH: assess objectively and treat promptly using an integrated protocol; WHO recommends uterine massage,
oxytocic therapy, fluids, IV tranexamic acid when indicated, source assessment and escalation.
• Newborn resuscitation: ventilate for persistent apnea/gasping or HR <100 after initial steps; compress if HR stays <60
after 30 seconds of effective ventilation.
• Jaundice: use bilirubin level, postnatal age in hours, gestational age and neurotoxicity risk factors—not a single
universal phototherapy number.
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Practice Questions with Answers & Rationales
Questions 1–25
1. Which symptom in a recently delivered patient raises concern for postpartum preeclampsia?
A. Normal lactation thirst
B. Severe headache with vision changes and elevated blood pressure
C. Mild fatigue following interrupted sleep
D. Improving afterpains
Correct Answer: B. Severe headache with vision changes and elevated blood pressure
Rationale: Preeclampsia can appear after delivery and demands timely evaluation of severe neurologic symptoms.
Incorrect options: A (Normal lactation thirst); C (Mild fatigue following interrupted sleep); D (Improving afterpains). These do not
best answer the clinical cue; Preeclampsia can appear after delivery and demands timely evaluation of severe neurologic
symptoms.
2. Why is delayed cord clamping often considered for a vigorous newborn when feasible?
A. It is mandatory regardless of urgent resuscitation needs
B. It eliminates all need for vitamin K
C. It guarantees no neonatal jaundice
D. It can improve neonatal iron stores and transition
Correct Answer: D. It can improve neonatal iron stores and transition
Rationale: A brief delay can benefit neonatal blood volume and iron, balanced with clinical resuscitation priorities.
Incorrect options: A (It is mandatory regardless of urgent resuscitation needs); B (It eliminates all need for vitamin K); C (It
guarantees no neonatal jaundice). These do not best answer the clinical cue; A brief delay can benefit neonatal blood volume and
iron, balanced with clinical resuscitation priorities.
3. After delivery, heavy bleeding and a soft enlarged uterus suggest what?
A. Uterine atony
B. Physiologic newborn tachypnea
C. Stable cervical dilation
D. Normal postpartum adaptation without need for assessment
Correct Answer: A. Uterine atony
Rationale: An atonic uterus cannot compress placental-bed vessels effectively and is a major cause of postpartum
hemorrhage.
Incorrect options: B (Physiologic newborn tachypnea); C (Stable cervical dilation); D (Normal postpartum adaptation without need
for assessment). These do not best answer the clinical cue; An atonic uterus cannot compress placental-bed vessels effectively
and is a major cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
4. Which response to a parent describing traumatic birth is most therapeutic?
A. Assume every reaction means psychosis
B. Prohibit discussing the experience
C. Insist they should feel grateful
D. Listen nonjudgmentally, validate concerns, and offer appropriate follow-up support
Correct Answer: D. Listen nonjudgmentally, validate concerns, and offer appropriate follow-up support
Rationale: Trauma-informed care supports recovery and identifies those needing additional mental-health support.
Incorrect options: A (Assume every reaction means psychosis); B (Prohibit discussing the experience); C (Insist they should feel
grateful). These do not best answer the clinical cue; Trauma-informed care supports recovery and identifies those needing
additional mental-health support.
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5. A patient reports rectal pressure and an urge to push. What should the nurse do first?
A. Assess cervical dilation and fetal descent
B. Stop fetal monitoring indefinitely
C. Assume delivery is 60 minutes away
D. Send the patient walking alone
Correct Answer: A. Assess cervical dilation and fetal descent
Rationale: Pressure can signal descent or complete dilation, but the examination and tracing guide appropriate
care.
Incorrect options: B (Stop fetal monitoring indefinitely); C (Assume delivery is 60 minutes away); D (Send the patient walking
alone). These do not best answer the clinical cue; Pressure can signal descent or complete dilation, but the examination and
tracing guide appropriate care.
6. A patient with placental abruption becomes hypotensive and pale. What is the priority?
A. Rapid maternal resuscitation and emergent obstetric evaluation
B. Postpartum contraception counseling
C. Delay until pain resolves
D. Routine food tray
Correct Answer: A. Rapid maternal resuscitation and emergent obstetric evaluation
Rationale: Abruption may cause concealed massive hemorrhage and fetal hypoxia; immediate stabilization is
essential.
Incorrect options: B (Postpartum contraception counseling); C (Delay until pain resolves); D (Routine food tray). These do not best
answer the clinical cue; Abruption may cause concealed massive hemorrhage and fetal hypoxia; immediate stabilization is
essential.
7. Why is vitamin K routinely offered to newborns?
A. To stimulate pulmonary surfactant immediately
B. To eliminate all jaundice
C. To cure neonatal hypoglycemia
D. To prevent vitamin K deficiency bleeding
Correct Answer: D. To prevent vitamin K deficiency bleeding
Rationale: Newborn vitamin K stores are low, and prophylaxis helps prevent potentially severe bleeding.
Incorrect options: A (To stimulate pulmonary surfactant immediately); B (To eliminate all jaundice); C (To cure neonatal
hypoglycemia). These do not best answer the clinical cue; Newborn vitamin K stores are low, and prophylaxis helps prevent
potentially severe bleeding.
8. During shoulder dystocia, which action is part of an appropriate initial team response?
A. Tell the mother to leave the bed
B. Pull forcefully on the fetal head
C. Call for assistance and use established obstetric maneuvers such as McRoberts positioning
D. Apply excessive fundal pressure
Correct Answer: C. Call for assistance and use established obstetric maneuvers such as McRoberts positioning
Rationale: Shoulder dystocia requires a coordinated emergency response; excessive traction and fundal pressure
are unsafe.
Incorrect options: A (Tell the mother to leave the bed); B (Pull forcefully on the fetal head); D (Apply excessive fundal pressure).
These do not best answer the clinical cue; Shoulder dystocia requires a coordinated emergency response; excessive traction and
fundal pressure are unsafe.
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