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NSG 3850 Pathophysiology for Nurses II Exam 3 | Complete Practice Test with Correct Answers and Detailed Rationales | Latest Update – 2026/2027 | Galen College of Nursing | Already Graded A+

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Master NSG 3850 Pathophysiology for Nurses II Exam 3 at Galen College of Nursing with this complete practice test featuring actual exam-style questions, 100% correct answers, and detailed rationales—fully updated for 2026/2027 and already graded A+. Cover essential renal and urinary disorders including nephrotic syndrome (proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia), acute pyelonephritis (E. coli, fever, CVA tenderness), glomerulonephritis (immune complex, coffee-colored urine, RBC casts), renal calculi (calcium stones, renal colic, dehydration), polycystic kidney disease, and all types of urinary incontinence (stress, urge, overflow, functional). Dive deep into gastrointestinal pathophysiology with peptic ulcer disease (H. pylori, PPIs, gastric vs. duodenal ulcers), hiatal hernia, bowel obstruction (adhesions, paralytic ileus), appendicitis, ulcerative colitis vs. Crohn’s, celiac disease, and dumping syndrome. Build the pathophysiologic knowledge and clinical judgment you need to excel—download now and study with proven, exam-ready content.

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

NSG 3850 Pathophysiology for Nurses II Exam 3 |
Complete Practice Test with Correct Answers and
Detailed Rationales | Latest Update – 2026/2027 |
Galen College of Nursing | Already Graded A+

Exam Overview: This practice test covers the NSG 3850 Exam 3 for nursing
students. The content spans renal and urinary disorders, gastrointestinal
disorders, and related pathophysiology. Answers and detailed rationales are
provided for each question.

Question 1
Nephrotic syndrome does not usually cause:
A. Hyperlipidemia
B. Proteinuria
C. Hematuria
D. Generalized edema
Answer: C
Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria, hyperlipidemia,
generalized edema, and hypoalbuminemia. Hematuria is not a typical feature of
nephrotic syndrome; it is more commonly associated with nephritic syndrome
(glomerulonephritis).

Question 2
A person with acute pyelonephritis would most typically experience:
A. Fever
B. Oliguria
C. Edema
D. Hypertension
Answer: A
Rationale: Acute pyelonephritis is an infection of the kidney and renal pelvis.
Fever, chills, and costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness are classic symptoms.
Oliguria, edema, and hypertension are not typical presentations.
pg. 1

,Question 3
The organism most commonly associated with acute pyelonephritis is:
A. Streptococcus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Klebsiella
D. Enterobacter
Answer: B
Rationale: Escherichia coli is the most common organism causing acute
pyelonephritis, accounting for approximately 80% of cases. Klebsiella, Proteus,
and Enterobacter are less common.

Question 4
It is true that polycystic kidney disease is:
A. Always rapidly fatal
B. Caused by a streptococcal infection
C. Associated with supernumerary kidney
D. Genetically transmitted
Answer: D
Rationale: Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is a genetic disorder. Autosomal
dominant PKD is the most common form. It is not always rapidly fatal, not caused
by streptococcal infection, and not associated with supernumerary kidney.

Question 5
The pathophysiologic basis of acute glomerulonephritis is:
A. Renal ischemia
B. Bacterial invasion of the glomerulus
C. An anaphylactic reaction
D. An immune complex reaction
Answer: D
Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis is caused by an immune complex reaction,
often following a streptococcal infection. Antibodies bind to antigens in the
glomerulus, causing inflammation and damage. It is not caused by direct bacterial
invasion.


pg. 2

, Question 6
Signs consistent with a diagnosis of glomerulonephritis include:
A. Anuria
B. Proteinuria
C. Red blood cell casts in urine
D. Foul-smelling urine
Answer: B
Rationale: Proteinuria is a consistent finding in glomerulonephritis due to
increased glomerular permeability. RBC casts are also seen (option C is also
correct, but the source key indicates B). Anuria and foul-smelling urine are not
typical.

Question 7
A patient with gouty arthritis develops renal calculi. The composition of these
calculi is most likely to be:
A. Potassium oxalate
B. Struvite
C. Cysteine
D. Uric acid crystals
Answer: D
Rationale: Gout is characterized by hyperuricemia. Uric acid calculi form when
urine is acidic and concentrated with uric acid. Potassium oxalate is not a typical
stone composition. Struvite stones are associated with UTIs. Cysteine stones are
genetic.

Question 8
The most common type of renal stone is:
A. Uric acid
B. Calcium
C. Struvite
D. Cysteine
Answer: B
Rationale: Calcium stones (calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate) account for
approximately 70-80% of all renal stones. Uric acid stones are second most
common.
pg. 3

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