NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family – Chamberlain College of Nursing – Academic Year 2026/2027 – Midterm Comprehensive Examination with Verified Questions and Correct Answer Rationales

Chamberlain College of Nursing | NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and
Childrearing Family



NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and
Childrearing Family Midterm Examination
2026/2027 | Verified Questions
Chamberlain College of Nursing | NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family |
University-Level Advanced Practice Nursing Students
100 Verified Questions | 4 Core Domains | Academic Year 2026/2027

Prepared by
Chamberlain College of Nursing | NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family
Midterm Comprehensive Examination Actual Exam | Academic Year 2026/2027




NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family Midterm Examination 2026/2027 | Verified Questions

,INTRODUCTION

This document contains 100 original verified questions designed for the NR 602 Primary Care of the
Childbearing and Childrearing Family Midterm Comprehensive Examination for the academic year
2026/2027. The questions are distributed equally across four core domains: Domain 1 Antepartum and
Prenatal Care Management (25 questions), Domain 2 Intrapartum and Postpartum Care (25 questions),
Domain 3 Newborn and Infant Care (25 questions), and Domain 4 Toddler and Preschooler Health and
Development (25 questions). Content is original and constructed to reinforce the official NR 602 course
objectives for actual exam readiness and clinical proficiency in maternal-child primary care, aligned to the
2026/2027 academic year. Each question includes a correct answer designation and a rationale grounded
in foundational pathophysiology methodology.

ACTUAL QUESTIONS

Domain 1: Antepartum and Prenatal Care Management

Question 1. Which process describes programmed cell death that is orderly and does not
provoke inflammation?
A. Necrosis
B. Apoptosis
C. Gangrenous necrosis exclusively
D. Coagulative necrosis only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Apoptosis is genetically regulated cell death that removes damaged or unwanted cells
without eliciting a significant inflammatory response, unlike necrosis.

Question 2. What is the primary mechanism of hypoxic cell injury?
A. Immediate DNA fragmentation without ATP change
B. Reduced ATP production leading to failure of sodium-potassium pumps and cellular swelling
C. Exclusive free radical injury without energy failure
D. Increased oxidative phosphorylation in all cases
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hypoxia impairs oxidative phosphorylation, depleting ATP; ion pump failure causes sodium
and water influx and cellular swelling, which may progress to irreversible injury.

Question 3. Which type of necrosis is typically seen in the brain after ischemic injury?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Caseous necrosis
C. Liquefactive necrosis
D. Fat necrosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ischemic injury in the brain produces liquefactive necrosis because of high lipid content and
enzymatic digestion of tissue.

Question 4. What is the role of free radicals in cell injury?
A. They always protect cells from damage
B. They can damage lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids through oxidative reactions
C. They only affect extracellular matrix
D. They have no role in reperfusion injury
Correct Answer: D




NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family Midterm Examination 2026/2027 | Verified Questions

, Rationale: Reactive oxygen species and other free radicals attack membrane lipids (peroxidation),
proteins, and DNA, contributing to injury including ischemia-reperfusion damage.

Question 5. Which cellular adaptation involves an increase in cell size without an increase
in cell number?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Metaplasia
D. Atrophy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size (and organ size) in response to increased demand or
stimulation, without cell division.

Question 6. What is metaplasia?
A. Increase in cell number in a tissue
B. Replacement of one differentiated cell type by another, often in response to chronic irritation
C. Decrease in cell size only
D. Unregulated neoplastic growth
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another, typically as an
adaptive response to persistent stress.

Question 7. Which genetic term describes a change in DNA sequence that may alter protein
function?
A. Karyotype only
B. Mutation
C. Transcription exclusively
D. Translation without DNA change
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that can affect gene product
structure or expression and may cause disease.

Question 8. What is the difference between a germline and a somatic mutation?
A. There is no difference
B. Germline mutations are present in gametes and can be inherited; somatic mutations occur in body
cells and are not passed to offspring
C. Somatic mutations are always inherited
D. Germline mutations only affect the individual and never offspring
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Germline mutations occur in reproductive cells and can be transmitted to children; somatic
mutations arise in non-germ cells and affect only the individual.

Question 9. Which inheritance pattern is characteristic of autosomal dominant disorders?
A. Both alleles must be mutated for disease expression
B. One mutated allele is sufficient to express the phenotype; affected individuals typically have an
affected parent
C. Only males are affected
D. The trait skips generations obligatorily
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In autosomal dominant inheritance, a single copy of the mutant allele produces the
phenotype; transmission often occurs from an affected parent to offspring of either sex.


NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family Midterm Examination 2026/2027 | Verified Questions