NSG 6020- WEEK 9 STUDY GUIDE
UPDATED ACTUAL QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
130 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NSG 6020- WEEK 9 STUDY GUIDE UPDATED ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS. It contains
130 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question
is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 130 Questions
Foundations - Application - NSG 6020- WEEK 9 Study Guide Updated Actual AND Correct Nursing
Graduate
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Health History AND Physical 1-22 Finding, Pulmonary, Acute, Warfarin, Mechanism
Assessment
Cardiovascular System 23-44 Syndrome, Acute, Finding, Chronic, Disease
Respiratory System 45-66 Acute, Finding, Appropriate, Started, Explains
Neurological System 67-88 Prescribed, Likely, Metformin, Heart Failure, Appropriate
Musculoskeletal System 89-110 Acute, Finding, Prescribed, Medication, Appropriate
Integumentary System 111-130 Therapy, Prescribed, Laboratory, Heart Failure, Effect
TOTAL 130 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Health History AND Physical Assessment
Q1.
A patient on long-term warfarin therapy is started on amiodarone for atrial fibrillation. How
should the warfarin dose be adjusted, and what monitoring is essential?
A. Increase warfarin dose by 50% and B. Decrease warfarin dose by 30-50% and
monitor INR weekly. monitor INR closely.
C. Discontinue warfarin and switch to a D. No dose adjustment needed; monitor for
DOAC. bleeding signs.
Correct: B - Decrease warfarin dose by 30-50% and monitor INR closely.
Rationale:Amiodarone inhibits CYP2C9 and CYP3A4, reducing warfarin metabolism, thus
potentiating its effect. A 30-50% dose reduction is recommended with frequent INR
monitoring to avoid bleeding.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Increasing the dose would exacerbate the risk of bleeding.
C. Switching to a DOAC is not automatically indicated; warfarin can be continued with dose
adjustment.
D. Amiodarone significantly alters warfarin metabolism, so dose adjustment is necessary.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 35.
Q2.
Which pathophysiological mechanism best explains the development of resistant
hypertension in a patient with primary aldosteronism?
A. Increased sympathetic nervous system B. Sodium retention and volume expansion
activity leading to vasoconstriction. with suppressed renin.
C. Overproduction of cortisol causing D. Enhanced nitric oxide degradation
glucocorticoid receptor activation. causing endothelial dysfunction.
Correct: B - Sodium retention and volume expansion with suppressed renin.
Rationale:Primary aldosteronism causes excess aldosterone, leading to renal sodium
reabsorption, volume expansion, and hypertension with suppressed renin. This mechanism is
resistant to standard antihypertensives.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Sympathetic overactivity is not the primary mechanism in primary aldosteronism.
C. Cortisol excess is more characteristic of Cushing's syndrome.
D. Nitric oxide degradation is not the direct mechanism of aldosterone-induced hypertension.
Reference: McCance, K.L., & Huether, S.E. (2023). Pathophysiology, 9th Ed., Ch. 32.
Page 3
, Section A - Health History AND Physical Assessment
Q3.
Which finding is most indicative of an anaphylactic reaction to a medication,
distinguishing it from a vasovagal response?
A. Bradycardia and pallor B. Urticaria and bronchospasm
C. Hypotension and syncope D. Nausea and diaphoresis
Correct: B - Urticaria and bronchospasm
Rationale:Anaphylaxis involves IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation, causing urticaria,
bronchospasm, and hypotension. Vasovagal reactions present with bradycardia and pallor,
lacking skin and respiratory manifestations.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Bradycardia and pallor are classic vasovagal signs.
C. Hypotension and syncope can occur in both but are nonspecific.
D. Nausea and diaphoresis are common in vasovagal reactions.
Reference: Bope, E.T., & Kellerman, R.D. (2024). Conn's Current Therapy, Ch. 263.
Q4.
A patient with type 2 diabetes and CKD stage 3 is prescribed metformin. What is the most
appropriate adjustment?
A. Continue current dose with annual renal B. Reduce dose by half and monitor renal
function monitoring. function every 3 months.
C. Discontinue metformin and start insulin. D. Switch to sulfonylurea to avoid renal
complications.
Correct: B - Reduce dose by half and monitor renal function every 3 months.
Rationale:Metformin is renally cleared; in CKD stage 3, the dose should be reduced and
renal function monitored frequently to prevent lactic acidosis.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Annual monitoring is insufficient; more frequent checks are needed.
C. Insulin may be necessary later, but metformin can be continued with dose adjustment.
D. Sulfonylureas also have renal considerations and are not inherently safer.
Reference: ADA Standards of Medical Care in Diabetes (2025), Ch. 9.
Q5.
Which laboratory finding is most consistent with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
type II?
A. Platelet count drop >50% from baseline B. Immediate platelet count drop within
5-10 days after heparin initiation hours of heparin exposure
Page 4
UPDATED ACTUAL QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
130 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NSG 6020- WEEK 9 STUDY GUIDE UPDATED ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS. It contains
130 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question
is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 130 Questions
Foundations - Application - NSG 6020- WEEK 9 Study Guide Updated Actual AND Correct Nursing
Graduate
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Health History AND Physical 1-22 Finding, Pulmonary, Acute, Warfarin, Mechanism
Assessment
Cardiovascular System 23-44 Syndrome, Acute, Finding, Chronic, Disease
Respiratory System 45-66 Acute, Finding, Appropriate, Started, Explains
Neurological System 67-88 Prescribed, Likely, Metformin, Heart Failure, Appropriate
Musculoskeletal System 89-110 Acute, Finding, Prescribed, Medication, Appropriate
Integumentary System 111-130 Therapy, Prescribed, Laboratory, Heart Failure, Effect
TOTAL 130 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Health History AND Physical Assessment
Q1.
A patient on long-term warfarin therapy is started on amiodarone for atrial fibrillation. How
should the warfarin dose be adjusted, and what monitoring is essential?
A. Increase warfarin dose by 50% and B. Decrease warfarin dose by 30-50% and
monitor INR weekly. monitor INR closely.
C. Discontinue warfarin and switch to a D. No dose adjustment needed; monitor for
DOAC. bleeding signs.
Correct: B - Decrease warfarin dose by 30-50% and monitor INR closely.
Rationale:Amiodarone inhibits CYP2C9 and CYP3A4, reducing warfarin metabolism, thus
potentiating its effect. A 30-50% dose reduction is recommended with frequent INR
monitoring to avoid bleeding.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Increasing the dose would exacerbate the risk of bleeding.
C. Switching to a DOAC is not automatically indicated; warfarin can be continued with dose
adjustment.
D. Amiodarone significantly alters warfarin metabolism, so dose adjustment is necessary.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 35.
Q2.
Which pathophysiological mechanism best explains the development of resistant
hypertension in a patient with primary aldosteronism?
A. Increased sympathetic nervous system B. Sodium retention and volume expansion
activity leading to vasoconstriction. with suppressed renin.
C. Overproduction of cortisol causing D. Enhanced nitric oxide degradation
glucocorticoid receptor activation. causing endothelial dysfunction.
Correct: B - Sodium retention and volume expansion with suppressed renin.
Rationale:Primary aldosteronism causes excess aldosterone, leading to renal sodium
reabsorption, volume expansion, and hypertension with suppressed renin. This mechanism is
resistant to standard antihypertensives.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Sympathetic overactivity is not the primary mechanism in primary aldosteronism.
C. Cortisol excess is more characteristic of Cushing's syndrome.
D. Nitric oxide degradation is not the direct mechanism of aldosterone-induced hypertension.
Reference: McCance, K.L., & Huether, S.E. (2023). Pathophysiology, 9th Ed., Ch. 32.
Page 3
, Section A - Health History AND Physical Assessment
Q3.
Which finding is most indicative of an anaphylactic reaction to a medication,
distinguishing it from a vasovagal response?
A. Bradycardia and pallor B. Urticaria and bronchospasm
C. Hypotension and syncope D. Nausea and diaphoresis
Correct: B - Urticaria and bronchospasm
Rationale:Anaphylaxis involves IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation, causing urticaria,
bronchospasm, and hypotension. Vasovagal reactions present with bradycardia and pallor,
lacking skin and respiratory manifestations.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Bradycardia and pallor are classic vasovagal signs.
C. Hypotension and syncope can occur in both but are nonspecific.
D. Nausea and diaphoresis are common in vasovagal reactions.
Reference: Bope, E.T., & Kellerman, R.D. (2024). Conn's Current Therapy, Ch. 263.
Q4.
A patient with type 2 diabetes and CKD stage 3 is prescribed metformin. What is the most
appropriate adjustment?
A. Continue current dose with annual renal B. Reduce dose by half and monitor renal
function monitoring. function every 3 months.
C. Discontinue metformin and start insulin. D. Switch to sulfonylurea to avoid renal
complications.
Correct: B - Reduce dose by half and monitor renal function every 3 months.
Rationale:Metformin is renally cleared; in CKD stage 3, the dose should be reduced and
renal function monitored frequently to prevent lactic acidosis.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Annual monitoring is insufficient; more frequent checks are needed.
C. Insulin may be necessary later, but metformin can be continued with dose adjustment.
D. Sulfonylureas also have renal considerations and are not inherently safer.
Reference: ADA Standards of Medical Care in Diabetes (2025), Ch. 9.
Q5.
Which laboratory finding is most consistent with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
type II?
A. Platelet count drop >50% from baseline B. Immediate platelet count drop within
5-10 days after heparin initiation hours of heparin exposure
Page 4
