NSG 6020 3P EXAM VERIFIED
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
{94.67%} CORRECT
140 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NSG 6020 3P EXAM VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS {94.67%} CORRECT. It contains 140 carefully
selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 140 Questions
Foundations - Application - NSG 6020 3p AND 94 67 Correct Nursing / Advanced Health Assessment
Graduate
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Health Promotion AND 1-24 Appropriate, Combination, Acute, Chronic, Started
Maintenance
Reduction OF RISK Potential 25-48 History, Prescribed, Finding, Failure, Diabetes
Physiological Adaptation 49-72 Therapy, Failure, Suspected, Combination, Findings
Pharmacological Therapies 73-96 Acute, Finding, Appropriate, Chronic, Prescribed
Basic CARE AND Comfort 97-120 Finding, Disease, Appropriate, Chronic, Describes
Management OF CARE 121-140 Presents, Finding, Appropriate, Explains, Laboratory
TOTAL 140 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Health Promotion AND Maintenance
Q1.
In a patient with suspected acute coronary syndrome, which electrocardiographic finding
is most indicative of posterior wall myocardial infarction when standard leads are
inconclusive?
A. ST-segment depression in leads V1-V3 B. ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and
with tall R waves aVF
C. Pathological Q waves in leads I and aVL D. Peaked T waves in the precordial leads
Correct: A - ST-segment depression in leads V1-V3 with tall R waves
Rationale:Posterior MI often presents with ST depression in V1-V3 and tall R waves
(reciprocal changes) rather than direct ST elevation. ST elevation in inferior leads suggests
inferior MI, Q waves in lateral leads suggest lateral MI, and peaked T waves are hyperacute
changes but not specific to posterior location.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. ST elevation in II, III, aVF indicates inferior wall MI.
C. Q waves in I and aVL suggest high lateral MI.
D. Peaked T waves are early hyperacute changes, not specific to posterior MI.
Reference: Thaler, M.S. (2019). The Only EKG Book You'll Ever Need, 9th Ed., Ch. 5
Q2.
Which pharmacodynamic principle best explains why a drug with a high therapeutic index
(TI) is safer than one with a low TI, and how does this relate to the margin between
effective and lethal doses?
A. High TI indicates a narrow margin B. High TI reflects a wide margin between
between ED50 and TD50, requiring close the dose producing the desired effect and
monitoring. the dose producing toxicity.
C. Low TI means the drug is more potent, D. TI is calculated as LD50/ED50, and a
requiring lower doses for efficacy. high TI indicates a smaller difference
between these values.
Correct: B - High TI reflects a wide margin between the dose producing the desired effect
and the dose producing toxicity.
Rationale:Therapeutic index (TI) is the ratio of the median toxic dose (TD50) to the median
effective dose (ED50). A high TI indicates a wide margin between effective and toxic doses,
thus a larger safety window. Low TI drugs have a narrow margin, increasing risk of toxicity.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Narrow margin is characteristic of low TI, not high TI.
Page 3
, Section A - Health Promotion AND Maintenance
C. Potency is independent of TI; it refers to dose needed for effect.
D. High TI means a larger ratio, not smaller difference.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 3
Q3.
A patient with type 2 diabetes and chronic kidney disease (eGFR 25 mL/min) is being
started on metformin. According to current FDA guidelines, what is the most appropriate
action?
A. Initiate metformin at a reduced dose and B. Avoid metformin due to increased risk of
monitor renal function every 3 months. lactic acidosis at this eGFR.
C. Use metformin with caution, but it is D. Start metformin at the usual dose, as it is
contraindicated only if eGFR falls below 30 safe in all stages of CKD.
mL/min.
Correct: B - Avoid metformin due to increased risk of lactic acidosis at this eGFR.
Rationale:Current FDA guidelines contraindicate metformin initiation when eGFR is below 30
mL/min due to increased risk of lactic acidosis. For eGFR 30-45, initiation is not
recommended, but continuation may be considered with dose reduction and monitoring. At
eGFR 25, metformin should be avoided.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Reduced dose might be considered for eGFR 30-45, but not for <30.
C. Contraindication for initiation is eGFR <30, so this is correct.
D. Metformin is not safe at eGFR <30.
Reference: ADA Standards of Medical Care in Diabetes-2024, Pharmacologic Approaches
Q4.
In a patient with suspected bacterial meningitis, which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) profile is
most consistent with a bacterial etiology rather than viral or fungal?
A. Elevated protein, low glucose, and B. Normal glucose, lymphocytic pleocytosis,
neutrophil-predominant pleocytosis and mildly elevated protein
C. Very low glucose, high protein, and D. Elevated opening pressure,
mononuclear cell predominance xanthochromia, and red blood cells
Correct: A - Elevated protein, low glucose, and neutrophil-predominant pleocytosis
Rationale:Bacterial meningitis typically shows elevated protein, decreased glucose, and
neutrophilic pleocytosis. Viral meningitis often has lymphocytic predominance with normal
glucose. Fungal meningitis may have mononuclear cells and low glucose. Xanthochromia
with RBCs suggests subarachnoid hemorrhage, not infection.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. This pattern is more typical of viral meningitis.
Page 4
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
{94.67%} CORRECT
140 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NSG 6020 3P EXAM VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS {94.67%} CORRECT. It contains 140 carefully
selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 140 Questions
Foundations - Application - NSG 6020 3p AND 94 67 Correct Nursing / Advanced Health Assessment
Graduate
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Health Promotion AND 1-24 Appropriate, Combination, Acute, Chronic, Started
Maintenance
Reduction OF RISK Potential 25-48 History, Prescribed, Finding, Failure, Diabetes
Physiological Adaptation 49-72 Therapy, Failure, Suspected, Combination, Findings
Pharmacological Therapies 73-96 Acute, Finding, Appropriate, Chronic, Prescribed
Basic CARE AND Comfort 97-120 Finding, Disease, Appropriate, Chronic, Describes
Management OF CARE 121-140 Presents, Finding, Appropriate, Explains, Laboratory
TOTAL 140 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Health Promotion AND Maintenance
Q1.
In a patient with suspected acute coronary syndrome, which electrocardiographic finding
is most indicative of posterior wall myocardial infarction when standard leads are
inconclusive?
A. ST-segment depression in leads V1-V3 B. ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and
with tall R waves aVF
C. Pathological Q waves in leads I and aVL D. Peaked T waves in the precordial leads
Correct: A - ST-segment depression in leads V1-V3 with tall R waves
Rationale:Posterior MI often presents with ST depression in V1-V3 and tall R waves
(reciprocal changes) rather than direct ST elevation. ST elevation in inferior leads suggests
inferior MI, Q waves in lateral leads suggest lateral MI, and peaked T waves are hyperacute
changes but not specific to posterior location.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. ST elevation in II, III, aVF indicates inferior wall MI.
C. Q waves in I and aVL suggest high lateral MI.
D. Peaked T waves are early hyperacute changes, not specific to posterior MI.
Reference: Thaler, M.S. (2019). The Only EKG Book You'll Ever Need, 9th Ed., Ch. 5
Q2.
Which pharmacodynamic principle best explains why a drug with a high therapeutic index
(TI) is safer than one with a low TI, and how does this relate to the margin between
effective and lethal doses?
A. High TI indicates a narrow margin B. High TI reflects a wide margin between
between ED50 and TD50, requiring close the dose producing the desired effect and
monitoring. the dose producing toxicity.
C. Low TI means the drug is more potent, D. TI is calculated as LD50/ED50, and a
requiring lower doses for efficacy. high TI indicates a smaller difference
between these values.
Correct: B - High TI reflects a wide margin between the dose producing the desired effect
and the dose producing toxicity.
Rationale:Therapeutic index (TI) is the ratio of the median toxic dose (TD50) to the median
effective dose (ED50). A high TI indicates a wide margin between effective and toxic doses,
thus a larger safety window. Low TI drugs have a narrow margin, increasing risk of toxicity.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Narrow margin is characteristic of low TI, not high TI.
Page 3
, Section A - Health Promotion AND Maintenance
C. Potency is independent of TI; it refers to dose needed for effect.
D. High TI means a larger ratio, not smaller difference.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 3
Q3.
A patient with type 2 diabetes and chronic kidney disease (eGFR 25 mL/min) is being
started on metformin. According to current FDA guidelines, what is the most appropriate
action?
A. Initiate metformin at a reduced dose and B. Avoid metformin due to increased risk of
monitor renal function every 3 months. lactic acidosis at this eGFR.
C. Use metformin with caution, but it is D. Start metformin at the usual dose, as it is
contraindicated only if eGFR falls below 30 safe in all stages of CKD.
mL/min.
Correct: B - Avoid metformin due to increased risk of lactic acidosis at this eGFR.
Rationale:Current FDA guidelines contraindicate metformin initiation when eGFR is below 30
mL/min due to increased risk of lactic acidosis. For eGFR 30-45, initiation is not
recommended, but continuation may be considered with dose reduction and monitoring. At
eGFR 25, metformin should be avoided.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Reduced dose might be considered for eGFR 30-45, but not for <30.
C. Contraindication for initiation is eGFR <30, so this is correct.
D. Metformin is not safe at eGFR <30.
Reference: ADA Standards of Medical Care in Diabetes-2024, Pharmacologic Approaches
Q4.
In a patient with suspected bacterial meningitis, which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) profile is
most consistent with a bacterial etiology rather than viral or fungal?
A. Elevated protein, low glucose, and B. Normal glucose, lymphocytic pleocytosis,
neutrophil-predominant pleocytosis and mildly elevated protein
C. Very low glucose, high protein, and D. Elevated opening pressure,
mononuclear cell predominance xanthochromia, and red blood cells
Correct: A - Elevated protein, low glucose, and neutrophil-predominant pleocytosis
Rationale:Bacterial meningitis typically shows elevated protein, decreased glucose, and
neutrophilic pleocytosis. Viral meningitis often has lymphocytic predominance with normal
glucose. Fungal meningitis may have mononuclear cells and low glucose. Xanthochromia
with RBCs suggests subarachnoid hemorrhage, not infection.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. This pattern is more typical of viral meningitis.
Page 4
