ATI Pharmacology Week 6: Neurological & Pain
Medications 2026 UPDATED ACTUAL Exam Questions and
CORRECT Answers
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for
phenytoin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Take the medication on an empty stomach to increase absorption.
B. Maintain good oral hygiene and visit the dentist regularly.
C. Expect the urine to turn dark orange or brown.
D. Stop the medication immediately if a mild skin rash develops.
Answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia (overgrowth of gum tissue), so
meticulous oral hygiene and frequent dental checkups are necessary.
2. A client with Parkinson’s disease is prescribed levodopa/carbidopa. What is
the primary purpose of combining carbidopa with levodopa?
A. To increase the breakdown of levodopa in the periphery.
B. To prevent levodopa from crossing the blood-brain barrier.
C. To reduce the risk of hypertensive crisis.
D. To decrease the amount of levodopa converted to dopamine in the periphery.
Answer: D
Rationale: Carbidopa inhibits the enzyme decarboxylase in the periphery, allowing more
levodopa to reach the brain and reducing systemic side effects like nausea.
,3. A nurse is assessing a client receiving valproic acid for seizures. Which of the
following laboratory results should the nurse monitor?
A. Serum potassium levels
B. Liver function tests (LFTs)
C. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
D. Arterial blood gases
Answer: B
Rationale: Valproic acid carries a black box warning for hepatotoxicity, requiring regular
monitoring of liver enzymes and signs of jaundice.
4. Which of the following medications is the drug of choice for treating status
epilepticus?
A. Ethosuximide
B. Gabapentin
C. Diazepam
D. Valproic acid
Answer: C
Rationale: Intravenous benzodiazepines like diazepam or lorazepam are first-line
treatments to terminate active status epilepticus seizures.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis who is taking
neostigmine. The nurse should monitor for which sign of a cholinergic crisis?
A. Tachycardia
B. Increased salivation
C. Dry mouth
D. Constipation
Answer: B
Rationale: Cholinergic crisis results from excessive acetylcholine, leading to symptoms like
SLUDGE (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, Gastric upset, Emesis).
, 6. What is the mechanism of action for sumatriptan in the treatment of
migraines?
A. Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
B. Selective activation of 5-HT1 receptors causing vasoconstriction
C. Vasodilation of intracranial blood vessels
D. Blockade of calcium channels in the brain
Answer: B
Rationale: Triptans work by stimulating serotonin receptors to cause intracranial
vasoconstriction and reduce neurogenic inflammation.
7. A client is prescribed baclofen for muscle spasticity. Which of the following is
a common side effect the nurse should discuss?
A. Insomnia
B. Urinary frequency
C. Hypertension
D. Drowsiness
Answer: D
Rationale: Baclofen is a central-acting muscle relaxant that frequently causes CNS
depression, leading to drowsiness and fatigue.
8. A nurse is preparing to administer morphine sulfate IV to a client. Which
respiratory rate would cause the nurse to withhold the medication?
A. 18 breaths/min
B. 14 breaths/min
C. 10 breaths/min
D. 22 breaths/min
Answer: C
Rationale: Opioids cause respiratory depression; usually, if the respiratory rate is below
12/min, the dose should be held and the provider notified.
Medications 2026 UPDATED ACTUAL Exam Questions and
CORRECT Answers
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for
phenytoin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Take the medication on an empty stomach to increase absorption.
B. Maintain good oral hygiene and visit the dentist regularly.
C. Expect the urine to turn dark orange or brown.
D. Stop the medication immediately if a mild skin rash develops.
Answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia (overgrowth of gum tissue), so
meticulous oral hygiene and frequent dental checkups are necessary.
2. A client with Parkinson’s disease is prescribed levodopa/carbidopa. What is
the primary purpose of combining carbidopa with levodopa?
A. To increase the breakdown of levodopa in the periphery.
B. To prevent levodopa from crossing the blood-brain barrier.
C. To reduce the risk of hypertensive crisis.
D. To decrease the amount of levodopa converted to dopamine in the periphery.
Answer: D
Rationale: Carbidopa inhibits the enzyme decarboxylase in the periphery, allowing more
levodopa to reach the brain and reducing systemic side effects like nausea.
,3. A nurse is assessing a client receiving valproic acid for seizures. Which of the
following laboratory results should the nurse monitor?
A. Serum potassium levels
B. Liver function tests (LFTs)
C. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
D. Arterial blood gases
Answer: B
Rationale: Valproic acid carries a black box warning for hepatotoxicity, requiring regular
monitoring of liver enzymes and signs of jaundice.
4. Which of the following medications is the drug of choice for treating status
epilepticus?
A. Ethosuximide
B. Gabapentin
C. Diazepam
D. Valproic acid
Answer: C
Rationale: Intravenous benzodiazepines like diazepam or lorazepam are first-line
treatments to terminate active status epilepticus seizures.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis who is taking
neostigmine. The nurse should monitor for which sign of a cholinergic crisis?
A. Tachycardia
B. Increased salivation
C. Dry mouth
D. Constipation
Answer: B
Rationale: Cholinergic crisis results from excessive acetylcholine, leading to symptoms like
SLUDGE (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, Gastric upset, Emesis).
, 6. What is the mechanism of action for sumatriptan in the treatment of
migraines?
A. Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
B. Selective activation of 5-HT1 receptors causing vasoconstriction
C. Vasodilation of intracranial blood vessels
D. Blockade of calcium channels in the brain
Answer: B
Rationale: Triptans work by stimulating serotonin receptors to cause intracranial
vasoconstriction and reduce neurogenic inflammation.
7. A client is prescribed baclofen for muscle spasticity. Which of the following is
a common side effect the nurse should discuss?
A. Insomnia
B. Urinary frequency
C. Hypertension
D. Drowsiness
Answer: D
Rationale: Baclofen is a central-acting muscle relaxant that frequently causes CNS
depression, leading to drowsiness and fatigue.
8. A nurse is preparing to administer morphine sulfate IV to a client. Which
respiratory rate would cause the nurse to withhold the medication?
A. 18 breaths/min
B. 14 breaths/min
C. 10 breaths/min
D. 22 breaths/min
Answer: C
Rationale: Opioids cause respiratory depression; usually, if the respiratory rate is below
12/min, the dose should be held and the provider notified.
