OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Advanced Pathophysiology
Midterm Exam
NURS 6501 | Walden | 2026/2027
100 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Cellular & Molecular Neurological & Musculoskeletal
Pathophysiology Disorders
Cardiovascular & Respiratory Endocrine & Reproductive
Disorders Pathology
Renal & Fluid/Electrolyte
Imbalances
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTION 1 | Cellular & Molecular Pathophysiology | Q1-Q20 | NURS 6501 2026/2027
QUESTION 1 Question 1 of 100
Q1. A 68-year-old man with chronic hypertension undergoes an echocardiogram that shows a
thickened left ventricular wall. The nurse practitioner recognizes this enlargement results from
increased workload on individual myocardial cells. Which cellular adaptation explains this finding?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Metaplasia
D. Dysplasia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size in response to increased workload, which enlarges the myocardium in
chronic hypertension. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number, which does not occur in permanent cells like
cardiac muscle.
QUESTION 2 Question 2 of 100
Q2. A 55-year-old woman with a long history of gastroesophageal reflux has a biopsy showing
squamous esophageal cells replaced by columnar epithelium. The provider explains this is a
reversible change to a cell type better suited to the acidic environment. Which adaptation does this
describe?
A. Atrophy
B. Dysplasia
C. Metaplasia
D. Anaplasia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one mature cell type with another better able to withstand stress, as in
Barrett esophagus. Dysplasia refers to disordered, atypical cell growth and is not the initial adaptive substitution
described.
NURS 6501 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 52
, QUESTION 3 Question 3 of 100
Q3. A 40-year-old man is found unconscious after a prolonged period of restricted blood flow to his
leg following a tourniquet injury. Laboratory studies show cell swelling and a shift toward anaerobic
metabolism in the affected tissue. Which early cellular change most directly reflects this injury?
A. Failure of the sodium-potassium ATPase pump
B. Increased ATP production
C. Decreased intracellular sodium
D. Enhanced oxidative phosphorylation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Hypoxia reduces ATP, causing failure of the sodium-potassium ATPase pump, sodium influx, and cellular swelling.
Increased ATP production is incorrect because oxygen deprivation impairs oxidative phosphorylation and lowers
ATP.
QUESTION 4 Question 4 of 100
Q4. A 30-year-old woman develops localized redness, warmth, swelling, and pain at the site of a
wound infection. The nurse practitioner attributes these signs to vasodilation and increased vascular
permeability. Which mediator is primarily responsible for these early vascular changes?
A. Interferon
B. Complement C9
C. Fibrinogen
D. Histamine
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Histamine, released from mast cells, causes vasodilation and increased vascular permeability that produce the
cardinal signs of acute inflammation. Interferon is an antiviral cytokine and does not mediate these immediate
vascular responses.
NURS 6501 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 52
, QUESTION 5 Question 5 of 100
Q5. A 3-year-old child with a genetic disorder has cells that cannot properly break down cellular
waste due to a defective organelle. The pediatric provider explains the affected structure normally
contains digestive enzymes. Which organelle is defective?
A. Ribosome
B. Lysosome
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Mitochondrion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes that digest cellular debris and waste; their dysfunction underlies lysosomal
storage diseases. Ribosomes synthesize proteins and are not responsible for degrading cellular waste.
QUESTION 6 Question 6 of 100
Q6. A 62-year-old man who smokes develops a lung tumor, and pathology reveals cells with marked
variation in size, shape, and loss of normal organization. The provider explains these features
indicate a highly malignant, poorly differentiated growth. Which term best describes this cellular
appearance?
A. Anaplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Hyperplasia
D. Hypertrophy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Anaplasia is the loss of cellular differentiation and organization characteristic of aggressive malignancies.
Hyperplasia is a controlled increase in cell number and does not describe the disorganized malignant features
seen here.
NURS 6501 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 52