LEIK FNP LATEST 2026 EXAM QUESTIONS AND
SOLUTIONS RATED A+
✔✔All of the following are true statements about diverticula except:
A) Diverticula are located in the colon
B) A low-fiber diet is associated with the condition
C) Most diverticula in the colon are infected with gram-negative bacteria
D) Supplementingwithfibersuchaspsyllium(Metamucil)isrecommended - ✔✔C) Most
diverticula in the colon are infected with gram-negative bacte-
ria
Diverticuli in the colon can be infected with both gram-negative and gram- positive
bacteria.
✔✔Patients who are diagnosed with gonorrhea should also be treated for which of the
following infections?
A) Chancroid
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Herpes genitalis
D) PID (pelvic inflammatory disease) - ✔✔B) Chlamydia trachomatis
When diagnosed with gonorrhea, the patient should also be treated for Chlamydia
trachomatis.
✔✔Kyphosis is a late sign of:
A) Old age
B) Osteopenia
C) Osteoporosis
D) Osteoarthritis - ✔✔C) Osteoporosis
Kyphosis is a curvature of the spine that causes a rounding of the back, which leads to
a slouching posture. Severe thinning of the bones (osteoporosis) contributes to this
curvature in the spine. Symptoms that may occur with severe cases of kyphosis include
difficulty breathing, fatigue, and back pain.
✔✔A 35-year-old primigravida who is at 28 weeks of gestation is expecting twins. What
would you would expect her alpha fetoprotein (AFP) values to be?
A) Normal
B) Higher than normal
C) Lower than normal
D) None of the above - ✔✔B) Higher than normal
,Alpha fetoprotein is produced in the fetal and maternal liver. Higher levels of alpha
fetoprotein are commonly seen in multiple gestations due to the growing fetuses and
enlargement of the livers.
✔✔Which of the following antihypertensive medications has beneficial effects for an
elderly White female with osteoporosis?
A) Calcium channel blocker
B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
C) Beta-blocker
D) Diuretic - ✔✔A) Calcium channel blocker
Calcium channel blockers act by blocking the cal- cium channels in the heart muscle
and the blood vessels, thereby keeping more calcium in the bones.
✔✔The Lachman maneuver is used to detect which of the following?
A) Knee instability
B) Nerve damage of the knee due to past knee injuries
C) The integrity of the patellar tendon
D) Tears on the meniscus of the knee - ✔✔A) Knee instability
The Lachman maneuver is a test performed to assess for knee instability. Knee
instability indicates a tear of the anterior cruciate ligament.
✔✔When an adolescent male's penis grows more in length than width, at which of the
following Tanner stages is he classified?
A) Tanner Stage II
B) Tanner Stage III
C) Tanner Stage IV
D) Tanner Stage V - ✔✔B) Tanner Stage III
Tanner Stage III in males consists of penis lengthening and darker, coarse pubic hair,
which begins to curl
✔✔Fetal TORCH infections can cause microcephaly, mental retardation, hepatospleno-
megaly, and intrauterine growth retardation. The acronym TORCH stands for:
A) Toxoplasma gondii, other infections, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes
B) Toxic shock syndrome, ocular infections, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes
zoster
C) Tetanus, ophthalmic infections, roseola, cancer, and head abnormalities
,D) Toxins, other infections, roseola, candidiasis, and head abnormalities - ✔✔A)
Toxoplasmagondii, other infections, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes
The acronym TORCH stands for Toxoplasma gondii, other infections, rubella,
cytomegalovirus, and herpes. Although several of the conditions listed in the other
answer options can also cause fetal problems, they are not included in the TORCH
acronym.
✔✔Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection of the larynx has been associated with:
A) Laryngeal neoplasia
B) Esophageal stricture
C) Cervical cancer
D) Metaplasia of esophageal squamous cells - ✔✔A) Laryngeal neoplasia
HPV infection of the larynx has been associated with laryngeal neoplasia; HPV infection
of the cervix is associated with cervical cancer.
✔✔Mr. Brown is a 65-year-old carpenter complaining of morning stiffness and pain in
both his hands and right knee upon awakening. He feels some relief after warming up.
On exam, the nurse notices the presence of Heberden's nodes. Which of the fol- lowing
is most likely?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Degenerative joint disease
D) Reiter's syndrome - ✔✔C) Degenerative joint disease
Heberden's nodes are commonly seen in degenerative joint disease. Heberden's nodes
are bony nodules located on the distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs).
✔✔What does a positive posterior drawer sign in a 10-year-old soccer player signify?
A) An abnormal knee
B) Instability of the knee
C) A large amount of swelling on the knee
D) An injury of the meniscus - ✔✔B) Instability of the knee
The drawer sign is performed on the knee or ankle to assess for knee instability. The
affected knee will have more laxity when compared to the unaffected knee.
✔✔A multigravida who is at 28 weeks of gestation has a fundal height of 29 cm. Which
of the following is the best recommendation for this patient?
A) Advise the mother that her pregnancy is progressing well
, B) Order an ultrasound of the uterus
C) Refer her to an obstetrician for an amniocentesis
D) Recommend bed rest with bathroom privileges - ✔✔A) Advise the mother that her
pregnancy is progressing well
From 20-35 weeks' gestation, fundal height should equal weeks gestation. If greater
than 2 cm within the gestational week of pregnancy, further testing should be performed
to evaluate fetal growth
✔✔A multigravida who is at 34 weeks of gestation wants to know at what level her
uterine fundus should be. The best answer is to advise the mother that her fun- dus is:
A) Midway between the umbilicus and the lower ribs
B) At the level of the umbilicus
C) From 33 to 35 cm
D) From 32 to 34 cm - ✔✔C) From 33 to 35 cm
After 20 weeks gestation, fundal height in centimeters should measure approximately
the same as the number of weeks of gestation
✔✔Which of the following laboratory tests is used in primary care to evaluate renal
function?
A) Electrolyte panel
B) Creatinine
C) Alkaline phosphatase
D) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) to creatinine ratio - ✔✔B) Creatinine
Serum creatinine is measured to evaluate renal function. Creatinine is the end product
of creatine metabolism. Creatinine clearance is not affected by fluid or dietary intake of
meat.
✔✔All of the following are false statements regarding acute gastritis except:
A) Chronic intake of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can cause the
disorder
B) Chronic lack of dietary fiber is the main cause of the disorder
C) The screening test for the disorder is the barium swallow test
D) The gold standard to evaluate the disorder is a colonoscopy - ✔✔C) The screening
test for the disorder is the barium swallow test
The gold standard for diagnosing gastric disease is biopsy of gastric and/or duodenal
tissue by upper endoscopy. Chronic use of NSAIDs disrupts the production of
prostaglandins, which decreases blood supply and then breaks down the protective
layer of the mucosa, which leads to gastric disease.
SOLUTIONS RATED A+
✔✔All of the following are true statements about diverticula except:
A) Diverticula are located in the colon
B) A low-fiber diet is associated with the condition
C) Most diverticula in the colon are infected with gram-negative bacteria
D) Supplementingwithfibersuchaspsyllium(Metamucil)isrecommended - ✔✔C) Most
diverticula in the colon are infected with gram-negative bacte-
ria
Diverticuli in the colon can be infected with both gram-negative and gram- positive
bacteria.
✔✔Patients who are diagnosed with gonorrhea should also be treated for which of the
following infections?
A) Chancroid
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Herpes genitalis
D) PID (pelvic inflammatory disease) - ✔✔B) Chlamydia trachomatis
When diagnosed with gonorrhea, the patient should also be treated for Chlamydia
trachomatis.
✔✔Kyphosis is a late sign of:
A) Old age
B) Osteopenia
C) Osteoporosis
D) Osteoarthritis - ✔✔C) Osteoporosis
Kyphosis is a curvature of the spine that causes a rounding of the back, which leads to
a slouching posture. Severe thinning of the bones (osteoporosis) contributes to this
curvature in the spine. Symptoms that may occur with severe cases of kyphosis include
difficulty breathing, fatigue, and back pain.
✔✔A 35-year-old primigravida who is at 28 weeks of gestation is expecting twins. What
would you would expect her alpha fetoprotein (AFP) values to be?
A) Normal
B) Higher than normal
C) Lower than normal
D) None of the above - ✔✔B) Higher than normal
,Alpha fetoprotein is produced in the fetal and maternal liver. Higher levels of alpha
fetoprotein are commonly seen in multiple gestations due to the growing fetuses and
enlargement of the livers.
✔✔Which of the following antihypertensive medications has beneficial effects for an
elderly White female with osteoporosis?
A) Calcium channel blocker
B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
C) Beta-blocker
D) Diuretic - ✔✔A) Calcium channel blocker
Calcium channel blockers act by blocking the cal- cium channels in the heart muscle
and the blood vessels, thereby keeping more calcium in the bones.
✔✔The Lachman maneuver is used to detect which of the following?
A) Knee instability
B) Nerve damage of the knee due to past knee injuries
C) The integrity of the patellar tendon
D) Tears on the meniscus of the knee - ✔✔A) Knee instability
The Lachman maneuver is a test performed to assess for knee instability. Knee
instability indicates a tear of the anterior cruciate ligament.
✔✔When an adolescent male's penis grows more in length than width, at which of the
following Tanner stages is he classified?
A) Tanner Stage II
B) Tanner Stage III
C) Tanner Stage IV
D) Tanner Stage V - ✔✔B) Tanner Stage III
Tanner Stage III in males consists of penis lengthening and darker, coarse pubic hair,
which begins to curl
✔✔Fetal TORCH infections can cause microcephaly, mental retardation, hepatospleno-
megaly, and intrauterine growth retardation. The acronym TORCH stands for:
A) Toxoplasma gondii, other infections, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes
B) Toxic shock syndrome, ocular infections, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes
zoster
C) Tetanus, ophthalmic infections, roseola, cancer, and head abnormalities
,D) Toxins, other infections, roseola, candidiasis, and head abnormalities - ✔✔A)
Toxoplasmagondii, other infections, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes
The acronym TORCH stands for Toxoplasma gondii, other infections, rubella,
cytomegalovirus, and herpes. Although several of the conditions listed in the other
answer options can also cause fetal problems, they are not included in the TORCH
acronym.
✔✔Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection of the larynx has been associated with:
A) Laryngeal neoplasia
B) Esophageal stricture
C) Cervical cancer
D) Metaplasia of esophageal squamous cells - ✔✔A) Laryngeal neoplasia
HPV infection of the larynx has been associated with laryngeal neoplasia; HPV infection
of the cervix is associated with cervical cancer.
✔✔Mr. Brown is a 65-year-old carpenter complaining of morning stiffness and pain in
both his hands and right knee upon awakening. He feels some relief after warming up.
On exam, the nurse notices the presence of Heberden's nodes. Which of the fol- lowing
is most likely?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Degenerative joint disease
D) Reiter's syndrome - ✔✔C) Degenerative joint disease
Heberden's nodes are commonly seen in degenerative joint disease. Heberden's nodes
are bony nodules located on the distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs).
✔✔What does a positive posterior drawer sign in a 10-year-old soccer player signify?
A) An abnormal knee
B) Instability of the knee
C) A large amount of swelling on the knee
D) An injury of the meniscus - ✔✔B) Instability of the knee
The drawer sign is performed on the knee or ankle to assess for knee instability. The
affected knee will have more laxity when compared to the unaffected knee.
✔✔A multigravida who is at 28 weeks of gestation has a fundal height of 29 cm. Which
of the following is the best recommendation for this patient?
A) Advise the mother that her pregnancy is progressing well
, B) Order an ultrasound of the uterus
C) Refer her to an obstetrician for an amniocentesis
D) Recommend bed rest with bathroom privileges - ✔✔A) Advise the mother that her
pregnancy is progressing well
From 20-35 weeks' gestation, fundal height should equal weeks gestation. If greater
than 2 cm within the gestational week of pregnancy, further testing should be performed
to evaluate fetal growth
✔✔A multigravida who is at 34 weeks of gestation wants to know at what level her
uterine fundus should be. The best answer is to advise the mother that her fun- dus is:
A) Midway between the umbilicus and the lower ribs
B) At the level of the umbilicus
C) From 33 to 35 cm
D) From 32 to 34 cm - ✔✔C) From 33 to 35 cm
After 20 weeks gestation, fundal height in centimeters should measure approximately
the same as the number of weeks of gestation
✔✔Which of the following laboratory tests is used in primary care to evaluate renal
function?
A) Electrolyte panel
B) Creatinine
C) Alkaline phosphatase
D) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) to creatinine ratio - ✔✔B) Creatinine
Serum creatinine is measured to evaluate renal function. Creatinine is the end product
of creatine metabolism. Creatinine clearance is not affected by fluid or dietary intake of
meat.
✔✔All of the following are false statements regarding acute gastritis except:
A) Chronic intake of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can cause the
disorder
B) Chronic lack of dietary fiber is the main cause of the disorder
C) The screening test for the disorder is the barium swallow test
D) The gold standard to evaluate the disorder is a colonoscopy - ✔✔C) The screening
test for the disorder is the barium swallow test
The gold standard for diagnosing gastric disease is biopsy of gastric and/or duodenal
tissue by upper endoscopy. Chronic use of NSAIDs disrupts the production of
prostaglandins, which decreases blood supply and then breaks down the protective
layer of the mucosa, which leads to gastric disease.
