ATI RN Fundamentals for Nursing Edition 11.0 - 500 Question Test Bank Aligned with 2026 ATI Curriculum and NCLEX-RN Test Plan
ATI RN FUNDAMENTALS FOR NURSING
Edition 11.0 - Complete Test Bank
Chapters 1-58 Exam-Style 500 Questions with Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales
Examination: ATI RN Fundamentals for Nursing Edition 11.0 - Complete Test Bank
Coverage: Chapters 1-58 - All Core Domains
Format: 500 Multiple Choice Questions (4 options, one best answer)
Cognitive Mix: ~30% Recall, ~50% Application, ~20% Analysis
Question Style: 80% Scenario-based, 20% Direct Recall with Clinical Application
Alignment: 2026 ATI Curriculum Standards and NCLEX-RN Test Plan
Quality: A+ Graded - Verified Answers with Detailed Rationales
Chapter Mapping Reference (ATI RN Fundamentals Edition 11.0):
Ch 1-8 Management of Care (Advocacy, Delegation, Prioritization, Legal/Ethics)
Ch 9-15 Safety and Infection Control (Precautions, Equipment, Disaster)
Ch 16-22 Health Promotion and Maintenance (Developmental Stages, Screening, Immunizations)
Ch 23-28 Psychosocial Integrity (Communication, Grief, Mental Health, Culture)
Ch 29-37 Basic Care and Comfort (Mobility, Nutrition, Elimination, Hygiene, Sleep, Pain)
Ch 38-44 Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies (Med Admin, Dosage Calc, IV, Blood)
Ch 45-50 Reduction of Risk Potential (Vital Signs, Diagnostics, Perioperative, Wounds)
Ch 51-58 Physiological Adaptation (Med-Surg, Fluid/Electrolytes, Emergencies)
Instructions: This comprehensive 500-question test bank assesses fundamental nursing knowledge across all eight NCLEX-RN content domains
aligned with the 2026 ATI RN Fundamentals for Nursing Edition 11.0 curriculum. For each item, select the single best answer. Correct answers are
marked [CORRECT] and followed by a detailed rationale integrating ATI clinical reasoning, NCLEX-RN test plan alignment, and test-taking
strategies. Cognitive levels are distributed as ~30% recall, ~50% application, and ~20% analysis. Use for comprehensive NCLEX-RN preparation
and ATI proctored exam readiness.
SECTION 1: Management of Care
(Advocacy, Delegation, Prioritization, Case Management, Continuity of Care, & Legal/Ethical Issues)
Q1: A nurse is caring for a client scheduled for an elective cholecystectomy. The provider has explained the
procedure, risks, and alternatives, but the client tells the nurse, "I'm not really sure I want to do this." Which action
should the nurse take FIRST?
A. Notify the operating room to delay the surgery
B. Reinforce the provider's explanation and encourage the client to proceed
C. Notify the provider of the client's statement and request a return visit [CORRECT]
D. Document that the client has withdrawn consent and cancel the case
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Valid informed consent requires the client to fully understand and voluntarily agree to the procedure. When the client
expresses uncertainty, the nurse's role as advocate is to notify the provider so the provider can address the client's concerns directly;
consent is the provider's responsibility to obtain. The nurse should not coerce the client (option B), unilaterally cancel the case (option
D), or notify the OR before the provider has spoken with the client (option A). This aligns with NCLEX-RN Management of Care
(Informed Consent).
Q2: A 17-year-old client who is legally emancipated is admitted for an appendectomy. Who should sign the surgical
consent form?
A. The client, because emancipated minors can consent to their own care [CORRECT]
B. The client's parent or legal guardian
C. The provider, with a second nurse witnessing the signature
D. The client's grandparent if parents are unavailable
A+ Graded Quality - Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales Page 1
,ATI RN Fundamentals for Nursing Edition 11.0 - 500 Question Test Bank Aligned with 2026 ATI Curriculum and NCLEX-RN Test Plan
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Emancipated minors (married, in the military, financially independent, or court-emancipated) have the legal authority to
provide their own informed consent for medical treatment. Parents retain consent authority for non-emancipated minors. A provider
cannot consent for a client (option C), and grandparents lack legal standing unless they are the court-appointed guardian (option D).
Q3: A client who speaks only Spanish is scheduled for a colonoscopy. The nurse does not speak Spanish. Which is the
BEST resource to use when reinforcing pre-procedure teaching?
A. A hospital-employed medical interpreter [CORRECT]
B. The client's bilingual teenage daughter
C. A Spanish-language printed instruction sheet only
D. An online translation application on the nurse's phone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A qualified medical interpreter is required to ensure accurate, confidential communication and to comply with Title VI of
the Civil Rights Act and Joint Commission standards. Family members (especially minors) should not interpret because of privacy
concerns, potential bias, and inaccurate translation of medical terminology (option B). Printed materials alone do not allow for questions
(option C), and online translation apps are not HIPAA-compliant and may produce inaccurate translations (option D).
Q4: A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has stage IV ovarian cancer and tells the nurse, "I don't want any
more treatment. I just want to be comfortable." The provider continues to discuss chemotherapy options with the
client. Which action by the nurse BEST demonstrates client advocacy?
A. Inform the provider of the client's wishes and request a palliative care consult [CORRECT]
B. Tell the client she should follow the provider's recommendation
C. Document the client's statement but take no further action
D. Contact the ethics committee without first speaking to the provider
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Advocacy involves actively supporting the client's autonomous decisions and ensuring the care team is aware of the client's
preferences. The nurse should communicate the client's wishes to the provider and request a palliative care consult to align care with the
client's goals. The nurse should not pressure the client to accept treatment (option B), ignore the statement (option C), or bypass the
provider by going directly to the ethics committee before attempting collaborative resolution (option D).
Q5: A competent adult client refuses a prescribed blood transfusion due to religious beliefs. Which action should the
nurse take?
A. Notify the provider, document the refusal, and respect the client's decision [CORRECT]
B. Administer the transfusion because it is life-saving
C. Ask the family to override the client's refusal
D. Obtain a court order to force the transfusion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A competent adult has the legal and ethical right to refuse any treatment, including life-saving measures, based on autonomy
and self-determination. The nurse must notify the provider, ensure the client understands the consequences, document the refusal, and
respect the decision. Administering the transfusion against the client's wishes constitutes battery (option B). Family members cannot
override a competent adult's decision (option C), and a court order is only considered for minors or incompetent adults (option D).
Q6: A nurse is preparing to witness a client's signature on a surgical consent form. The client has received midazolam
2 mg IV for anxiety 15 minutes ago. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Delay obtaining the signature and notify the provider that the client has received a sedative [CORRECT]
B. Witness the signature because the client is calm and cooperative
C. Ask the client to sign, then document that midazolam was given afterward
D. Have a family member sign on the client's behalf
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A client must be competent and not under the influence of sedating medications when signing informed consent.
Midazolam impairs cognition and judgment, invalidating consent. The nurse should delay the signature and notify the provider.
Calmness does not equate to competency (option B). Backdating or documenting after the fact is fraudulent (option C). A family
member cannot sign for a competent adult (option D).
A+ Graded Quality - Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales Page 2
,ATI RN Fundamentals for Nursing Edition 11.0 - 500 Question Test Bank Aligned with 2026 ATI Curriculum and NCLEX-RN Test Plan
Q7: Which of the following clients can legally give informed consent without a parent or guardian signature?
A. A 16-year-old married client seeking prenatal care [CORRECT]
B. A 15-year-old requiring appendectomy whose parents are reachable
C. A 14-year-old needing immunizations for school
D. A 17-year-old requesting a cosmetic procedure living at home with parents
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Minors who are married, in the armed forces, emancipated by court order, or self-supporting are considered emancipated
minors and may provide their own informed consent. The other scenarios require parental consent because the minors are not
emancipated. Emergency exceptions apply only when a parent cannot be reached and delay would endanger the minor.
Q8: A nurse notes that a coworker posted a photo of a client's distinctive wound on social media with the caption,
"Interesting case today!" Which action should the nurse take FIRST?
A. Report the coworker to the nursing supervisor [CORRECT]
B. Confront the coworker privately and ask them to remove the post
C. Comment on the post to remind the coworker of HIPAA
D. Ignore the post because the client's name is not visible
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Posting any client-identifying information, even without a name, violates HIPAA. The nurse has a professional duty to
report the breach through the chain of command (nursing supervisor) so the facility can investigate and report per HIPAA
requirements. While asking the coworker to remove the post seems helpful, it does not fulfill the mandatory reporting obligation
(option B). Public comments about the post further the breach (option C), and identifiable health information alone constitutes a
violation (option D).
Q9: A charge nurse is planning care for four clients and is working with one LPN and one UAP. Which client should
the charge nurse assign to the LPN?
A. A client who was admitted 2 hours ago with acute GI bleeding requiring continuous assessment
B. A stable client with a colostomy who needs teaching about pouch change
C. A client with a tracheostomy who is on a ventilator and requires frequent suctioning
D. A stable client with a chronic wound requiring a dressing change [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The LPN scope of practice includes caring for stable clients with predictable outcomes and performing tasks such as
dressing changes. New admissions requiring ongoing assessment (option A) and complex teaching (option B) are RN responsibilities.
Ventilator-dependent clients with frequent suctioning require RN-level assessment skills (option C). The 5 Rights of Delegation (right
task, right circumstance, right person, right direction, right supervision) support assigning stable, chronic wound care to the LPN.
Q10: Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the RN to delegate to a UAP?
A. Measuring and recording a client's intake and output [CORRECT]
B. Teaching a client about a low-sodium diet
C. Assessing a client's incision for signs of infection
D. Evaluating a client's response to a new pain medication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: UAPs may perform activities of daily living, basic care, and measurements such as intake and output, vital signs on stable
clients, ambulation, and hygiene. Teaching (option B), assessment (option C), and evaluation (option D) are RN responsibilities that
cannot be delegated. The 5 Rights of Delegation guide the RN to delegate tasks that do not require professional judgment.
Q11: A nurse delegates ambulation of a postoperative client to a UAP. The UAP reports that the client reports
dizziness when standing. Which action should the nurse take FIRST?
A. Instruct the UAP to assist the client back to bed and obtain orthostatic vital signs [CORRECT]
B. Tell the UAP to ambulate the client slowly
C. Document the UAP's report and reassess the client in 1 hour
D. Ambulate the client personally to assess tolerance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a delegated task reveals an unexpected change in client condition, the priority is to ensure client safety and obtain
further assessment data. Having the UAP return the client to bed prevents falls, and obtaining orthostatic vital signs provides data for
the RN to assess the cause. Continuing to ambulate is unsafe (option B), delaying assessment is inappropriate (option C), and the RN
should assess the client before deciding whether personal ambulation is warranted (option D).
A+ Graded Quality - Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales Page 3
, ATI RN Fundamentals for Nursing Edition 11.0 - 500 Question Test Bank Aligned with 2026 ATI Curriculum and NCLEX-RN Test Plan
Q12: A charge nurse is making assignments for the shift. Which client should NOT be assigned to an LPN?
A. A client with a fractured femur in balanced suspension traction requiring pin site care
B. A client 1 day postoperative from a hip replacement who needs ambulation assistance
C. A client who was admitted 4 hours ago with acute asthma exacerbation requiring frequent respiratory assessment
[CORRECT]
D. A client with a chronic pressure ulcer requiring a wet-to-dry dressing change
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients who are unstable or require frequent, complex assessments must be cared for by an RN. A newly admitted client
with an acute asthma exacerbation requires ongoing respiratory assessment and evaluation of response to treatment. The other clients
are stable and within the LPN scope of practice. Use the 'unstable vs. stable' prioritization framework when making assignments.
Q13: A registered nurse is caring for four clients and delegates vital signs to a UAP. Which client's vital signs should
the RN obtain personally rather than delegate?
A. A client who received a unit of packed RBCs 30 minutes ago [CORRECT]
B. A client who is 2 days postoperative from an appendectomy and is afebrile
C. A client with a stable chronic urinary tract infection
D. A client preparing for discharge after a 3-day stay for cellulitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The RN must personally obtain vital signs on clients whose condition is unstable or requires professional interpretation,
including during blood transfusions when the nurse must assess for transfusion reactions. The other clients are stable, and their vital
signs can be safely delegated to the UAP. This aligns with the 5 Rights of Delegation: right circumstance and right person.
Q14: Which of the following is one of the Five Rights of Delegation?
A. Right circumstance [CORRECT]
B. Right medication
C. Right documentation
D. Right client
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Five Rights of Delegation are: right task, right circumstance, right person, right direction and communication, and right
supervision and evaluation. 'Right medication,' 'right documentation,' and 'right client' are part of the Rights of Medication
Administration, not delegation.
Q15: A nurse delegates the task of feeding a client with dysphagia to a UAP. Which statement by the nurse provides
the BEST direction?
A. "Place the client in high Fowler's position, use a thickened liquid diet, and remain with the client for 30 minutes after
the meal." [CORRECT]
B. "Feed the client slowly and stop if they cough."
C. "Feed the client and report how much they ate at the end of the shift."
D. "Encourage the client to eat quickly so the food does not get cold."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Effective delegation requires clear, specific direction that ensures client safety. A client with dysphagia is at risk for
aspiration, so the UAP must know proper positioning (high Fowler's), diet texture (thickened liquids), and post-meal precautions.
Vague direction (option B) does not include aspiration precautions. Reporting only intake (option C) omits safety. Eating quickly
increases aspiration risk (option D).
Q16: A UAP tells the nurse, "I have never transferred a client using a mechanical lift before." Which action should
the nurse take?
A. Delegate the task to another UAP who has experience
B. Tell the UAP to read the policy manual before performing the transfer
C. Demonstrate the procedure and supervise the UAP performing the transfer [CORRECT]
D. Perform the transfer without including the UAP
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Delegation requires the delegatee to have demonstrated competence. When the UAP lacks experience, the nurse must teach,
demonstrate, and supervise the task until competence is verified. Reassigning without teaching does not develop staff (option A).
Reading a manual alone does not ensure competence (option B). Performing the task without including the UAP fails to develop staff
A+ Graded Quality - Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales Page 4
ATI RN FUNDAMENTALS FOR NURSING
Edition 11.0 - Complete Test Bank
Chapters 1-58 Exam-Style 500 Questions with Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales
Examination: ATI RN Fundamentals for Nursing Edition 11.0 - Complete Test Bank
Coverage: Chapters 1-58 - All Core Domains
Format: 500 Multiple Choice Questions (4 options, one best answer)
Cognitive Mix: ~30% Recall, ~50% Application, ~20% Analysis
Question Style: 80% Scenario-based, 20% Direct Recall with Clinical Application
Alignment: 2026 ATI Curriculum Standards and NCLEX-RN Test Plan
Quality: A+ Graded - Verified Answers with Detailed Rationales
Chapter Mapping Reference (ATI RN Fundamentals Edition 11.0):
Ch 1-8 Management of Care (Advocacy, Delegation, Prioritization, Legal/Ethics)
Ch 9-15 Safety and Infection Control (Precautions, Equipment, Disaster)
Ch 16-22 Health Promotion and Maintenance (Developmental Stages, Screening, Immunizations)
Ch 23-28 Psychosocial Integrity (Communication, Grief, Mental Health, Culture)
Ch 29-37 Basic Care and Comfort (Mobility, Nutrition, Elimination, Hygiene, Sleep, Pain)
Ch 38-44 Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies (Med Admin, Dosage Calc, IV, Blood)
Ch 45-50 Reduction of Risk Potential (Vital Signs, Diagnostics, Perioperative, Wounds)
Ch 51-58 Physiological Adaptation (Med-Surg, Fluid/Electrolytes, Emergencies)
Instructions: This comprehensive 500-question test bank assesses fundamental nursing knowledge across all eight NCLEX-RN content domains
aligned with the 2026 ATI RN Fundamentals for Nursing Edition 11.0 curriculum. For each item, select the single best answer. Correct answers are
marked [CORRECT] and followed by a detailed rationale integrating ATI clinical reasoning, NCLEX-RN test plan alignment, and test-taking
strategies. Cognitive levels are distributed as ~30% recall, ~50% application, and ~20% analysis. Use for comprehensive NCLEX-RN preparation
and ATI proctored exam readiness.
SECTION 1: Management of Care
(Advocacy, Delegation, Prioritization, Case Management, Continuity of Care, & Legal/Ethical Issues)
Q1: A nurse is caring for a client scheduled for an elective cholecystectomy. The provider has explained the
procedure, risks, and alternatives, but the client tells the nurse, "I'm not really sure I want to do this." Which action
should the nurse take FIRST?
A. Notify the operating room to delay the surgery
B. Reinforce the provider's explanation and encourage the client to proceed
C. Notify the provider of the client's statement and request a return visit [CORRECT]
D. Document that the client has withdrawn consent and cancel the case
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Valid informed consent requires the client to fully understand and voluntarily agree to the procedure. When the client
expresses uncertainty, the nurse's role as advocate is to notify the provider so the provider can address the client's concerns directly;
consent is the provider's responsibility to obtain. The nurse should not coerce the client (option B), unilaterally cancel the case (option
D), or notify the OR before the provider has spoken with the client (option A). This aligns with NCLEX-RN Management of Care
(Informed Consent).
Q2: A 17-year-old client who is legally emancipated is admitted for an appendectomy. Who should sign the surgical
consent form?
A. The client, because emancipated minors can consent to their own care [CORRECT]
B. The client's parent or legal guardian
C. The provider, with a second nurse witnessing the signature
D. The client's grandparent if parents are unavailable
A+ Graded Quality - Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales Page 1
,ATI RN Fundamentals for Nursing Edition 11.0 - 500 Question Test Bank Aligned with 2026 ATI Curriculum and NCLEX-RN Test Plan
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Emancipated minors (married, in the military, financially independent, or court-emancipated) have the legal authority to
provide their own informed consent for medical treatment. Parents retain consent authority for non-emancipated minors. A provider
cannot consent for a client (option C), and grandparents lack legal standing unless they are the court-appointed guardian (option D).
Q3: A client who speaks only Spanish is scheduled for a colonoscopy. The nurse does not speak Spanish. Which is the
BEST resource to use when reinforcing pre-procedure teaching?
A. A hospital-employed medical interpreter [CORRECT]
B. The client's bilingual teenage daughter
C. A Spanish-language printed instruction sheet only
D. An online translation application on the nurse's phone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A qualified medical interpreter is required to ensure accurate, confidential communication and to comply with Title VI of
the Civil Rights Act and Joint Commission standards. Family members (especially minors) should not interpret because of privacy
concerns, potential bias, and inaccurate translation of medical terminology (option B). Printed materials alone do not allow for questions
(option C), and online translation apps are not HIPAA-compliant and may produce inaccurate translations (option D).
Q4: A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has stage IV ovarian cancer and tells the nurse, "I don't want any
more treatment. I just want to be comfortable." The provider continues to discuss chemotherapy options with the
client. Which action by the nurse BEST demonstrates client advocacy?
A. Inform the provider of the client's wishes and request a palliative care consult [CORRECT]
B. Tell the client she should follow the provider's recommendation
C. Document the client's statement but take no further action
D. Contact the ethics committee without first speaking to the provider
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Advocacy involves actively supporting the client's autonomous decisions and ensuring the care team is aware of the client's
preferences. The nurse should communicate the client's wishes to the provider and request a palliative care consult to align care with the
client's goals. The nurse should not pressure the client to accept treatment (option B), ignore the statement (option C), or bypass the
provider by going directly to the ethics committee before attempting collaborative resolution (option D).
Q5: A competent adult client refuses a prescribed blood transfusion due to religious beliefs. Which action should the
nurse take?
A. Notify the provider, document the refusal, and respect the client's decision [CORRECT]
B. Administer the transfusion because it is life-saving
C. Ask the family to override the client's refusal
D. Obtain a court order to force the transfusion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A competent adult has the legal and ethical right to refuse any treatment, including life-saving measures, based on autonomy
and self-determination. The nurse must notify the provider, ensure the client understands the consequences, document the refusal, and
respect the decision. Administering the transfusion against the client's wishes constitutes battery (option B). Family members cannot
override a competent adult's decision (option C), and a court order is only considered for minors or incompetent adults (option D).
Q6: A nurse is preparing to witness a client's signature on a surgical consent form. The client has received midazolam
2 mg IV for anxiety 15 minutes ago. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Delay obtaining the signature and notify the provider that the client has received a sedative [CORRECT]
B. Witness the signature because the client is calm and cooperative
C. Ask the client to sign, then document that midazolam was given afterward
D. Have a family member sign on the client's behalf
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A client must be competent and not under the influence of sedating medications when signing informed consent.
Midazolam impairs cognition and judgment, invalidating consent. The nurse should delay the signature and notify the provider.
Calmness does not equate to competency (option B). Backdating or documenting after the fact is fraudulent (option C). A family
member cannot sign for a competent adult (option D).
A+ Graded Quality - Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales Page 2
,ATI RN Fundamentals for Nursing Edition 11.0 - 500 Question Test Bank Aligned with 2026 ATI Curriculum and NCLEX-RN Test Plan
Q7: Which of the following clients can legally give informed consent without a parent or guardian signature?
A. A 16-year-old married client seeking prenatal care [CORRECT]
B. A 15-year-old requiring appendectomy whose parents are reachable
C. A 14-year-old needing immunizations for school
D. A 17-year-old requesting a cosmetic procedure living at home with parents
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Minors who are married, in the armed forces, emancipated by court order, or self-supporting are considered emancipated
minors and may provide their own informed consent. The other scenarios require parental consent because the minors are not
emancipated. Emergency exceptions apply only when a parent cannot be reached and delay would endanger the minor.
Q8: A nurse notes that a coworker posted a photo of a client's distinctive wound on social media with the caption,
"Interesting case today!" Which action should the nurse take FIRST?
A. Report the coworker to the nursing supervisor [CORRECT]
B. Confront the coworker privately and ask them to remove the post
C. Comment on the post to remind the coworker of HIPAA
D. Ignore the post because the client's name is not visible
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Posting any client-identifying information, even without a name, violates HIPAA. The nurse has a professional duty to
report the breach through the chain of command (nursing supervisor) so the facility can investigate and report per HIPAA
requirements. While asking the coworker to remove the post seems helpful, it does not fulfill the mandatory reporting obligation
(option B). Public comments about the post further the breach (option C), and identifiable health information alone constitutes a
violation (option D).
Q9: A charge nurse is planning care for four clients and is working with one LPN and one UAP. Which client should
the charge nurse assign to the LPN?
A. A client who was admitted 2 hours ago with acute GI bleeding requiring continuous assessment
B. A stable client with a colostomy who needs teaching about pouch change
C. A client with a tracheostomy who is on a ventilator and requires frequent suctioning
D. A stable client with a chronic wound requiring a dressing change [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The LPN scope of practice includes caring for stable clients with predictable outcomes and performing tasks such as
dressing changes. New admissions requiring ongoing assessment (option A) and complex teaching (option B) are RN responsibilities.
Ventilator-dependent clients with frequent suctioning require RN-level assessment skills (option C). The 5 Rights of Delegation (right
task, right circumstance, right person, right direction, right supervision) support assigning stable, chronic wound care to the LPN.
Q10: Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the RN to delegate to a UAP?
A. Measuring and recording a client's intake and output [CORRECT]
B. Teaching a client about a low-sodium diet
C. Assessing a client's incision for signs of infection
D. Evaluating a client's response to a new pain medication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: UAPs may perform activities of daily living, basic care, and measurements such as intake and output, vital signs on stable
clients, ambulation, and hygiene. Teaching (option B), assessment (option C), and evaluation (option D) are RN responsibilities that
cannot be delegated. The 5 Rights of Delegation guide the RN to delegate tasks that do not require professional judgment.
Q11: A nurse delegates ambulation of a postoperative client to a UAP. The UAP reports that the client reports
dizziness when standing. Which action should the nurse take FIRST?
A. Instruct the UAP to assist the client back to bed and obtain orthostatic vital signs [CORRECT]
B. Tell the UAP to ambulate the client slowly
C. Document the UAP's report and reassess the client in 1 hour
D. Ambulate the client personally to assess tolerance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a delegated task reveals an unexpected change in client condition, the priority is to ensure client safety and obtain
further assessment data. Having the UAP return the client to bed prevents falls, and obtaining orthostatic vital signs provides data for
the RN to assess the cause. Continuing to ambulate is unsafe (option B), delaying assessment is inappropriate (option C), and the RN
should assess the client before deciding whether personal ambulation is warranted (option D).
A+ Graded Quality - Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales Page 3
, ATI RN Fundamentals for Nursing Edition 11.0 - 500 Question Test Bank Aligned with 2026 ATI Curriculum and NCLEX-RN Test Plan
Q12: A charge nurse is making assignments for the shift. Which client should NOT be assigned to an LPN?
A. A client with a fractured femur in balanced suspension traction requiring pin site care
B. A client 1 day postoperative from a hip replacement who needs ambulation assistance
C. A client who was admitted 4 hours ago with acute asthma exacerbation requiring frequent respiratory assessment
[CORRECT]
D. A client with a chronic pressure ulcer requiring a wet-to-dry dressing change
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients who are unstable or require frequent, complex assessments must be cared for by an RN. A newly admitted client
with an acute asthma exacerbation requires ongoing respiratory assessment and evaluation of response to treatment. The other clients
are stable and within the LPN scope of practice. Use the 'unstable vs. stable' prioritization framework when making assignments.
Q13: A registered nurse is caring for four clients and delegates vital signs to a UAP. Which client's vital signs should
the RN obtain personally rather than delegate?
A. A client who received a unit of packed RBCs 30 minutes ago [CORRECT]
B. A client who is 2 days postoperative from an appendectomy and is afebrile
C. A client with a stable chronic urinary tract infection
D. A client preparing for discharge after a 3-day stay for cellulitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The RN must personally obtain vital signs on clients whose condition is unstable or requires professional interpretation,
including during blood transfusions when the nurse must assess for transfusion reactions. The other clients are stable, and their vital
signs can be safely delegated to the UAP. This aligns with the 5 Rights of Delegation: right circumstance and right person.
Q14: Which of the following is one of the Five Rights of Delegation?
A. Right circumstance [CORRECT]
B. Right medication
C. Right documentation
D. Right client
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Five Rights of Delegation are: right task, right circumstance, right person, right direction and communication, and right
supervision and evaluation. 'Right medication,' 'right documentation,' and 'right client' are part of the Rights of Medication
Administration, not delegation.
Q15: A nurse delegates the task of feeding a client with dysphagia to a UAP. Which statement by the nurse provides
the BEST direction?
A. "Place the client in high Fowler's position, use a thickened liquid diet, and remain with the client for 30 minutes after
the meal." [CORRECT]
B. "Feed the client slowly and stop if they cough."
C. "Feed the client and report how much they ate at the end of the shift."
D. "Encourage the client to eat quickly so the food does not get cold."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Effective delegation requires clear, specific direction that ensures client safety. A client with dysphagia is at risk for
aspiration, so the UAP must know proper positioning (high Fowler's), diet texture (thickened liquids), and post-meal precautions.
Vague direction (option B) does not include aspiration precautions. Reporting only intake (option C) omits safety. Eating quickly
increases aspiration risk (option D).
Q16: A UAP tells the nurse, "I have never transferred a client using a mechanical lift before." Which action should
the nurse take?
A. Delegate the task to another UAP who has experience
B. Tell the UAP to read the policy manual before performing the transfer
C. Demonstrate the procedure and supervise the UAP performing the transfer [CORRECT]
D. Perform the transfer without including the UAP
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Delegation requires the delegatee to have demonstrated competence. When the UAP lacks experience, the nurse must teach,
demonstrate, and supervise the task until competence is verified. Reassigning without teaching does not develop staff (option A).
Reading a manual alone does not ensure competence (option B). Performing the task without including the UAP fails to develop staff
A+ Graded Quality - Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales Page 4
