ACLS COMPREHENSIVE EXAM QUESTIONS COMPLETE WITH 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS

ACLS COMPREHENSIVE EXAM QUESTIONS COMPLETE WITH
100% VERIFIED ANSWERS




1. What is the recommended compression rate for adult CPR?
A) 60 to 80 per minute
B) 80 to 100 per minute
C) 100 to 120 per minute
D) 120 to 140 per minute
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: High-quality CPR requires a compression rate of 100 to
120 per minute to maintain adequate cardiac output.
2. Which drug is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia
unresponsive to atropine?
A) Adenosine
B) Amiodarone
C) Dopamine infusion
D) Nitroglycerin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dopamine or epinephrine infusions are recommended
when atropine is ineffective for symptomatic bradycardia.
3. What is the initial energy setting for biphasic defibrillation in adult
ventricular fibrillation?
A) Manufacturer's recommendation
B) 360 J
C) 50 J

, D) 100 J
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The AHA recommends using the manufacturer's
recommended energy setting for biphasic defibrillators, typically 120
to 200 J.
4. Which of the following is a sign of high-quality CPR?
A) ETCO2 less than 10 mmHg
B) Diastolic blood pressure greater than 20 mmHg
C) Chest compression fraction less than 60%
D) Compression depth of 1 inch
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A diastolic blood pressure of >20 mmHg indicates
adequate compression quality and coronary perfusion.
5. Which rhythm is characterized by progressive lengthening of the
PR interval until a QRS is dropped?
A) Second-degree AV block type II
B) First-degree AV block
C) Second-degree AV block type I
D) Third-degree AV block
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Second-degree AV block type I (Wenckebach) exhibits
progressive PR prolongation before a dropped beat.
6. Which rhythm is characterized by constant PR intervals with
intermittent dropped QRS complexes?
A) Second-degree AV block type I
B) Second-degree AV block type II
C) Third-degree AV block

, D) First-degree AV block
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Type II second-degree AV block has constant PR intervals
but occasional non-conducted P waves.
7. Which of the following is the most reliable method to confirm
endotracheal tube placement?
A) Auscultation of breath sounds
B) Chest X-ray
C) Continuous waveform capnography
D) Pulse oximetry
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Continuous waveform capnography is the most reliable
method to confirm and monitor ET tube placement.
8. Which finding is a likely indicator of cardiac arrest in an
unresponsive patient?
A) Snoring
B) Gasps
C) Coughing
D) Wheezing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Agonal gasps are a common sign of cardiac arrest and
should be treated as such.
9. What is the recommended target temperature range for targeted
temperature management after cardiac arrest?
A) 30 to 32 degrees Celsius
B) 32 to 36 degrees Celsius
C) 36 to 38 degrees Celsius

, D) 28 to 30 degrees Celsius
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: TTM guidelines recommend a constant target
temperature between 32 and 36 degrees Celsius.
10. A patient with a suspected stroke has a normal CT scan and no
contraindications. What is the best treatment approach if
symptoms started 2 hours ago?
A) Start fibrinolytic therapy as soon as possible
B) Administer aspirin immediately
C) Wait for MRI results
D) Start heparin infusion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fibrinolytic therapy should be administered as soon as
possible within the 3-to-4.5-hour window for eligible patients.
11. To assess CPR quality in an intubated patient, which parameter
should be monitored?
A) Central venous pressure
B) PetCO2
C) Pulmonary artery pressure
D) Mixed venous oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: PetCO2 monitoring is used to assess CPR quality; values
less than 10 mmHg indicate poor compressions.
12. Which facility is most appropriate for a patient with ROSC after
sudden cardiac arrest?
A) Nearest hospital
B) Coronary reperfusion-capable medical center