ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2026-
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Retake
COMPLETE EXAM
Chapter 1: Health Assessment and Physical Examination
1. A nurse is preparing to perform a comprehensive health assessment on a
newly admitted client. Which of the following should the nurse perform first?
A. Obtain the client's health history
B. Perform a physical examination
C. Introduce self and verify client identification
D. Document findings in the electronic health record
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse must first introduce herself and verify client
identification using two identifiers before any assessment or intervention. This
ensures patient safety and establishes therapeutic communication. Obtaining
health history (A) and performing the physical exam (B) come after identification
verification. Documentation (D) occurs after assessment is complete.
2. A nurse is assessing a client's skin turgor. Which of the following findings
indicates dehydration?
A. Skin snaps back immediately when pinched
B. Skin remains tented after being pinched
C. Skin is warm and dry
D. Skin has a pink undertone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Poor skin turgor (tenting) occurs when the skin remains
elevated after being pinched and released, indicating dehydration. Option A
,describes normal skin turgor. Warm, dry skin (C) can indicate dehydration but is
not as specific as tenting. Pink undertone (D) is a normal finding.
3. A nurse is auscultating a client's lung sounds. Which of the following findings
should the nurse document as normal?
A. Crackles in the lower lobes
B. Wheezing on expiration
C. Vesicular breath sounds over the lung periphery
D. Absent breath sounds in the right lower lobe
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vesicular breath sounds are soft, low-pitched sounds heard
over most of the lung fields and are considered normal. Crackles (A) indicate fluid
in the alveoli. Wheezing (B) indicates narrowed airways. Absent breath sounds (D)
indicate pneumothorax or obstruction and require immediate intervention.
4. A nurse is performing a neurological assessment. Which of the following
questions should the nurse ask to assess the client's orientation?
A. "Can you tell me your name and where you are?"
B. "Can you squeeze my hands?"
C. "Do you feel any numbness or tingling?"
D. "Can you smile for me?"
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Orientation is assessed by asking the client about person,
place, and time. Asking the client's name and location assesses orientation to
person and place. Squeezing hands (B) assesses motor strength.
Numbness/tingling (C) assesses sensory function. Smiling (D) assesses cranial
nerve VII.
,5. A nurse is assessing a client's pain using the PQRST method. Which of the
following questions assesses the "Q" component?
A. "Where is your pain located?"
B. "What does the pain feel like?"
C. "Does anything make the pain better or worse?"
D. "When did the pain start?"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: PQRST stands for Provocation, Quality, Region, Severity, and
Timing. The "Q" (Quality) assesses what the pain feels like (e.g., sharp, dull,
burning). Location (A) is "R" (Region). Aggravating/alleviating factors (C) is "P"
(Provocation). Onset (D) is "T" (Timing).
6. A nurse is preparing to assess a client's abdomen. Which of the following
sequences should the nurse use?
A. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
B. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
C. Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion
D. Palpation, percussion, auscultation, inspection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For abdominal assessment, auscultation is performed before
percussion and palpation to avoid altering bowel sounds. The correct sequence is
Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation. Options A, C, and D are incorrect
sequences.
7. A nurse is assessing a client's level of consciousness using the Glasgow Coma
Scale. Which of the following parameters are assessed? (Select all that apply.)
A. Eye opening
B. Verbal response
C. Motor response
, D. Pupil size
E. Blood pressure
Correct Answer: A, B, C
Rationale: The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses three parameters: eye
opening (A), verbal response (B), and motor response (C). Pupil size (D) and blood
pressure (E) are not part of the GCS, though they are important neurological
assessments.
8. A nurse is performing a cardiovascular assessment. Which of the following
findings should the nurse report immediately?
A. Heart rate of 72 beats/min
B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
C. Jugular venous distention at 45 degrees
D. Capillary refill of 2 seconds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Jugular venous distention (JVD) at 45 degrees indicates right-
sided heart failure or fluid overload and should be reported immediately. Heart
rate of 72 (A), BP of 118/76 (B), and capillary refill of 2 seconds (D) are within
normal limits.
9. A nurse is assessing a client's range of motion. Which of the following terms
describes movement of a body part away from the midline?
A. Flexion
B. Extension
C. Abduction
D. Adduction
Correct Answer: C
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Retake
COMPLETE EXAM
Chapter 1: Health Assessment and Physical Examination
1. A nurse is preparing to perform a comprehensive health assessment on a
newly admitted client. Which of the following should the nurse perform first?
A. Obtain the client's health history
B. Perform a physical examination
C. Introduce self and verify client identification
D. Document findings in the electronic health record
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse must first introduce herself and verify client
identification using two identifiers before any assessment or intervention. This
ensures patient safety and establishes therapeutic communication. Obtaining
health history (A) and performing the physical exam (B) come after identification
verification. Documentation (D) occurs after assessment is complete.
2. A nurse is assessing a client's skin turgor. Which of the following findings
indicates dehydration?
A. Skin snaps back immediately when pinched
B. Skin remains tented after being pinched
C. Skin is warm and dry
D. Skin has a pink undertone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Poor skin turgor (tenting) occurs when the skin remains
elevated after being pinched and released, indicating dehydration. Option A
,describes normal skin turgor. Warm, dry skin (C) can indicate dehydration but is
not as specific as tenting. Pink undertone (D) is a normal finding.
3. A nurse is auscultating a client's lung sounds. Which of the following findings
should the nurse document as normal?
A. Crackles in the lower lobes
B. Wheezing on expiration
C. Vesicular breath sounds over the lung periphery
D. Absent breath sounds in the right lower lobe
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vesicular breath sounds are soft, low-pitched sounds heard
over most of the lung fields and are considered normal. Crackles (A) indicate fluid
in the alveoli. Wheezing (B) indicates narrowed airways. Absent breath sounds (D)
indicate pneumothorax or obstruction and require immediate intervention.
4. A nurse is performing a neurological assessment. Which of the following
questions should the nurse ask to assess the client's orientation?
A. "Can you tell me your name and where you are?"
B. "Can you squeeze my hands?"
C. "Do you feel any numbness or tingling?"
D. "Can you smile for me?"
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Orientation is assessed by asking the client about person,
place, and time. Asking the client's name and location assesses orientation to
person and place. Squeezing hands (B) assesses motor strength.
Numbness/tingling (C) assesses sensory function. Smiling (D) assesses cranial
nerve VII.
,5. A nurse is assessing a client's pain using the PQRST method. Which of the
following questions assesses the "Q" component?
A. "Where is your pain located?"
B. "What does the pain feel like?"
C. "Does anything make the pain better or worse?"
D. "When did the pain start?"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: PQRST stands for Provocation, Quality, Region, Severity, and
Timing. The "Q" (Quality) assesses what the pain feels like (e.g., sharp, dull,
burning). Location (A) is "R" (Region). Aggravating/alleviating factors (C) is "P"
(Provocation). Onset (D) is "T" (Timing).
6. A nurse is preparing to assess a client's abdomen. Which of the following
sequences should the nurse use?
A. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
B. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
C. Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion
D. Palpation, percussion, auscultation, inspection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For abdominal assessment, auscultation is performed before
percussion and palpation to avoid altering bowel sounds. The correct sequence is
Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation. Options A, C, and D are incorrect
sequences.
7. A nurse is assessing a client's level of consciousness using the Glasgow Coma
Scale. Which of the following parameters are assessed? (Select all that apply.)
A. Eye opening
B. Verbal response
C. Motor response
, D. Pupil size
E. Blood pressure
Correct Answer: A, B, C
Rationale: The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses three parameters: eye
opening (A), verbal response (B), and motor response (C). Pupil size (D) and blood
pressure (E) are not part of the GCS, though they are important neurological
assessments.
8. A nurse is performing a cardiovascular assessment. Which of the following
findings should the nurse report immediately?
A. Heart rate of 72 beats/min
B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
C. Jugular venous distention at 45 degrees
D. Capillary refill of 2 seconds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Jugular venous distention (JVD) at 45 degrees indicates right-
sided heart failure or fluid overload and should be reported immediately. Heart
rate of 72 (A), BP of 118/76 (B), and capillary refill of 2 seconds (D) are within
normal limits.
9. A nurse is assessing a client's range of motion. Which of the following terms
describes movement of a body part away from the midline?
A. Flexion
B. Extension
C. Abduction
D. Adduction
Correct Answer: C
