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ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXAM 2026/2027 – EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF

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Voorbeeld 4 van de 33 pagina's

ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXAM 2026/2027 – EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF

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ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXAM 2026/2027 –
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. Which action best
demonstrates the nurse's responsibility for medication safety?

A. Asking another nurse to verify every medication regardless of its classification

B. Administering medications according to the room number listed on the medication
administration record

C. Comparing the medication label with the medication administration record at the
required points before administration

D. Documenting medications immediately before removing them from the dispensing system

Rationale: Comparing the medication label with the medication administration record helps
verify the correct medication, dose, route, time, and client. Room number should not be used as
the primary client identifier, and documentation should occur after administration.

2. A hospitalized client suddenly becomes confused and attempts to climb out of
bed. Which nursing action should occur first?

A. Apply a vest restraint.

B. Assess the client for an underlying cause of the acute change in cognition.

C. Ask the family to remain at the bedside continuously.

D. Administer a prescribed sedative immediately.

Rationale: Acute confusion can result from hypoxia, infection, medication effects, metabolic
disturbances, or other reversible conditions. The nurse should first assess the client and identify
the cause before using restrictive or sedating interventions.

3. A nurse is teaching a client how to use an incentive spirometer after abdominal
surgery. Which instruction is appropriate?

A. Exhale forcefully into the mouthpiece.

B. Use the device only when shortness of breath occurs.

C. Take several rapid breaths through the device.

,D. Inhale slowly and deeply through the mouthpiece while keeping the indicator within the
recommended range.

Rationale: Slow, deep inhalation with an incentive spirometer promotes alveolar expansion and
helps prevent postoperative atelectasis. The device is used regularly rather than only when
symptoms develop.

4. A client receiving an opioid analgesic has a respiratory rate of 8/min and is
difficult to arouse. Which assessment finding requires the most immediate
intervention?

A. Decreased respiratory rate

B. Mild nausea

C. Urinary retention

D. Constipation

Rationale: Opioids can cause life-threatening respiratory depression. A respiratory rate of 8/min
with decreased responsiveness indicates an immediate airway and breathing concern.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia following a stroke. Which
intervention reduces the risk of aspiration during meals?

A. Encourage the client to drink thin liquids rapidly.

B. Place the client in a supine position after eating.

C. Position the client upright and maintain the position after the meal.

D. Offer large bites to reduce the duration of feeding.

Rationale: Upright positioning supports safer swallowing and decreases aspiration risk. Large
bites, rapid intake, thin liquids when contraindicated, and supine positioning can increase
aspiration risk.

6. A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed insulin lispro. When should the nurse
administer this medication in relation to meals?

A. At bedtime

B. When the meal is available and the client is ready to eat

C. One hour before the meal

,D. Two hours after the meal

Rationale: Insulin lispro is rapid acting and should generally be administered close to mealtime
so that its onset corresponds with the rise in blood glucose from food intake.

7. A nurse is assessing a client receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which finding
should the nurse report promptly?

A. Urine output of 1,200 mL over 24 hours

B. Decreased peripheral edema

C. Blood pressure of 128/76 mm Hg

D. Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L

Rationale: Furosemide can cause potassium loss. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L represents
significant hypokalemia and increases the risk of dysrhythmias.

8. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving oxygen. Which
finding indicates that the oxygen therapy is improving the client's condition?

A. Increased use of accessory muscles

B. Increasing restlessness

C. Improved oxygen saturation with decreased respiratory distress

D. Increasing respiratory rate and cyanosis

Rationale: Improved oxygenation should be accompanied by better oxygen saturation and
reduced respiratory distress. Increasing work of breathing, restlessness, and cyanosis suggest
worsening respiratory status.

9. A nurse is caring for a client with suspected pulmonary embolism. Which
assessment finding is most concerning?

A. Sudden dyspnea and chest pain

B. Gradual ankle swelling over several months

C. Mild chronic fatigue

D. Decreased appetite

, Rationale: Sudden dyspnea and chest pain are classic concerning findings associated with
pulmonary embolism and require immediate assessment and intervention.

10. A client is receiving a continuous intravenous heparin infusion. Which laboratory
test is commonly used to monitor the therapeutic effect of unfractionated
heparin?

A. INR

B. Hemoglobin A1c

C. Serum creatinine

D. Activated partial thromboplastin time

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time is commonly used to monitor unfractionated
heparin therapy. INR is primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy.

11. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who reports increasing shortness of
breath. Which assessment finding supports fluid volume overload?

A. Dry mucous membranes

B. Bilateral crackles and increasing peripheral edema

C. Flat neck veins

D. Orthostatic hypotension

Rationale: Fluid volume overload can produce pulmonary crackles, peripheral edema, weight
gain, and jugular venous distention. Dry mucous membranes and flat neck veins suggest volume
depletion.

12. A client with a new prescription for warfarin asks which food-related instruction is
most important. What should the nurse explain?

A. Avoid all foods containing carbohydrates.

B. Increase grapefruit consumption.

C. Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-containing foods.

D. Eliminate all green vegetables permanently.

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