STUDYVAULTACADEMICS 1
ATI RN Comprehensive Practice
Questions and Answers
Question 1 of 64
A postoperative client suddenly reports sharp chest pain, shortness of breath, anxiety, and tachycardia, with
an oxygen saturation of 88%. Which complication should the nurse suspect first?
A. A pulmonary embolism causing impaired pulmonary blood flow ✓ Correct
B. Hypoglycemia caused by prolonged preoperative fasting
C. Atelectasis caused by shallow postoperative breathing
D. Constipation caused by decreased postoperative mobility
Explanation: Sudden chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, and hypoxemia after surgery are classic findings of a
pulmonary embolism.
Question 2 of 64
A nurse is assessing a client receiving oxygen through a nasal cannula. Which finding requires immediate
intervention?
A. The client reports mild dryness inside the nostrils
B. The client has an oxygen saturation of 86% despite oxygen therapy ✓ Correct
C. The client has clear bilateral breath sounds
D. The client requests assistance with repositioning
Explanation: An oxygen saturation of 86% despite supplemental oxygen indicates inadequate oxygenation and
requires immediate assessment and intervention.
Question 3 of 64
A client receiving regular insulin becomes diaphoretic, confused, and shaky. What should the nurse do first if
the client can swallow safely?
A. Encourage the client to ambulate to improve glucose use
B. Restrict oral fluids until the confusion resolves
C. Administer an additional dose of prescribed insulin
D. Provide approximately 15 grams of rapidly absorbed carbohydrate ✓ Correct
Explanation: Diaphoresis, confusion, and tremors indicate hypoglycemia. A conscious client who can swallow
should receive a rapid carbohydrate source.
, STUDYVAULTACADEMICS 2
Question 4 of 64
Which assessment finding requires the nurse to withhold digoxin and notify the provider?
A. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
B. A blood pressure of 128/76 mm Hg
C. An apical pulse of 54 beats per minute ✓ Correct
D. A temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F)
Explanation: Digoxin can cause or worsen bradycardia. The medication is commonly withheld for a markedly
low apical pulse according to prescribed parameters.
Question 5 of 64
A client who received morphine has a respiratory rate of 8/min and is difficult to arouse. Which finding is the
priority?
A. Drowsiness expected after receiving analgesia
B. Constipation associated with decreased gastrointestinal motility
C. Mild nausea associated with opioid administration
D. Respiratory depression requiring immediate intervention ✓ Correct
Explanation: Opioids can suppress the respiratory center. Bradypnea and decreased responsiveness indicate
potentially life-threatening respiratory depression.
Question 6 of 64
A client taking warfarin asks whether dietary restrictions are necessary. Which response is most
appropriate?
A. Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-containing foods ✓ Correct
B. Increase vitamin D intake to prevent medication-related bleeding
C. Avoid all foods containing vitamin C during treatment
D. Eliminate iron-containing foods to improve anticoagulant action
Explanation: Large changes in vitamin K intake can alter warfarin effectiveness. Consistency supports stable
anticoagulation.
Question 7 of 64
Which position should the nurse recommend to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who is
experiencing dyspnea?
A. Lying flat with the legs elevated above the heart
B. Using Trendelenburg positioning to increase venous return
C. Assuming a supine position with the neck fully extended
D. Sitting upright while leaning slightly forward with arm support ✓ Correct
Explanation: Upright positioning with forward support promotes chest expansion and reduces the work of
breathing in clients with COPD.
, STUDYVAULTACADEMICS 3
Question 8 of 64
A client develops chills, back pain, and dyspnea during a blood transfusion. What is the nurse's first action?
A. Administer prescribed diuretics before stopping the transfusion
B. Complete the transfusion before notifying the provider of the reaction
C. Stop the transfusion while maintaining intravenous access with compatible fluid ✓ Correct
D. Slow the transfusion rate and reassess the client after 15 minutes
Explanation: The transfusion must be stopped immediately when a reaction is suspected to prevent additional
incompatible blood from entering the circulation.
Question 9 of 64
Which finding is most consistent with fluid-volume deficit caused by dehydration?
A. Bilateral crackles and frothy respiratory secretions
B. Decreased urine output with concentrated urine ✓ Correct
C. Distended neck veins with dependent edema
D. Bounding peripheral pulses with rapid weight gain
Explanation: Dehydration reduces renal perfusion, causing decreased urine output and concentrated urine.
Crackles and edema suggest fluid excess.
Question 10 of 64
A client has a serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which finding requires the most immediate attention?
A. A mild headache with normal strength and pulse regularity
B. Increased hunger without changes in cardiac assessment
C. Dry skin with mild thirst after limited oral intake
D. New muscle weakness accompanied by an irregular cardiac rhythm ✓ Correct
Explanation: Severe hyperkalemia can produce muscle weakness and fatal dysrhythmias. Cardiac monitoring
and urgent treatment are priorities.
Question 11 of 64
Which intervention is appropriate for a client with increased intracranial pressure?
A. Elevate the head of the bed while keeping the neck in neutral alignment ✓ Correct
B. Keep the client flat to maximize blood flow to the brain
C. Flex the client's neck to improve venous drainage from the brain
D. Encourage repeated coughing to increase cerebral oxygenation
Explanation: Head elevation and neutral alignment promote venous drainage and may reduce intracranial
pressure. Neck flexion and coughing can increase pressure.
Question 12 of 64
ATI RN Comprehensive Practice
Questions and Answers
Question 1 of 64
A postoperative client suddenly reports sharp chest pain, shortness of breath, anxiety, and tachycardia, with
an oxygen saturation of 88%. Which complication should the nurse suspect first?
A. A pulmonary embolism causing impaired pulmonary blood flow ✓ Correct
B. Hypoglycemia caused by prolonged preoperative fasting
C. Atelectasis caused by shallow postoperative breathing
D. Constipation caused by decreased postoperative mobility
Explanation: Sudden chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, and hypoxemia after surgery are classic findings of a
pulmonary embolism.
Question 2 of 64
A nurse is assessing a client receiving oxygen through a nasal cannula. Which finding requires immediate
intervention?
A. The client reports mild dryness inside the nostrils
B. The client has an oxygen saturation of 86% despite oxygen therapy ✓ Correct
C. The client has clear bilateral breath sounds
D. The client requests assistance with repositioning
Explanation: An oxygen saturation of 86% despite supplemental oxygen indicates inadequate oxygenation and
requires immediate assessment and intervention.
Question 3 of 64
A client receiving regular insulin becomes diaphoretic, confused, and shaky. What should the nurse do first if
the client can swallow safely?
A. Encourage the client to ambulate to improve glucose use
B. Restrict oral fluids until the confusion resolves
C. Administer an additional dose of prescribed insulin
D. Provide approximately 15 grams of rapidly absorbed carbohydrate ✓ Correct
Explanation: Diaphoresis, confusion, and tremors indicate hypoglycemia. A conscious client who can swallow
should receive a rapid carbohydrate source.
, STUDYVAULTACADEMICS 2
Question 4 of 64
Which assessment finding requires the nurse to withhold digoxin and notify the provider?
A. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
B. A blood pressure of 128/76 mm Hg
C. An apical pulse of 54 beats per minute ✓ Correct
D. A temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F)
Explanation: Digoxin can cause or worsen bradycardia. The medication is commonly withheld for a markedly
low apical pulse according to prescribed parameters.
Question 5 of 64
A client who received morphine has a respiratory rate of 8/min and is difficult to arouse. Which finding is the
priority?
A. Drowsiness expected after receiving analgesia
B. Constipation associated with decreased gastrointestinal motility
C. Mild nausea associated with opioid administration
D. Respiratory depression requiring immediate intervention ✓ Correct
Explanation: Opioids can suppress the respiratory center. Bradypnea and decreased responsiveness indicate
potentially life-threatening respiratory depression.
Question 6 of 64
A client taking warfarin asks whether dietary restrictions are necessary. Which response is most
appropriate?
A. Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-containing foods ✓ Correct
B. Increase vitamin D intake to prevent medication-related bleeding
C. Avoid all foods containing vitamin C during treatment
D. Eliminate iron-containing foods to improve anticoagulant action
Explanation: Large changes in vitamin K intake can alter warfarin effectiveness. Consistency supports stable
anticoagulation.
Question 7 of 64
Which position should the nurse recommend to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who is
experiencing dyspnea?
A. Lying flat with the legs elevated above the heart
B. Using Trendelenburg positioning to increase venous return
C. Assuming a supine position with the neck fully extended
D. Sitting upright while leaning slightly forward with arm support ✓ Correct
Explanation: Upright positioning with forward support promotes chest expansion and reduces the work of
breathing in clients with COPD.
, STUDYVAULTACADEMICS 3
Question 8 of 64
A client develops chills, back pain, and dyspnea during a blood transfusion. What is the nurse's first action?
A. Administer prescribed diuretics before stopping the transfusion
B. Complete the transfusion before notifying the provider of the reaction
C. Stop the transfusion while maintaining intravenous access with compatible fluid ✓ Correct
D. Slow the transfusion rate and reassess the client after 15 minutes
Explanation: The transfusion must be stopped immediately when a reaction is suspected to prevent additional
incompatible blood from entering the circulation.
Question 9 of 64
Which finding is most consistent with fluid-volume deficit caused by dehydration?
A. Bilateral crackles and frothy respiratory secretions
B. Decreased urine output with concentrated urine ✓ Correct
C. Distended neck veins with dependent edema
D. Bounding peripheral pulses with rapid weight gain
Explanation: Dehydration reduces renal perfusion, causing decreased urine output and concentrated urine.
Crackles and edema suggest fluid excess.
Question 10 of 64
A client has a serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which finding requires the most immediate attention?
A. A mild headache with normal strength and pulse regularity
B. Increased hunger without changes in cardiac assessment
C. Dry skin with mild thirst after limited oral intake
D. New muscle weakness accompanied by an irregular cardiac rhythm ✓ Correct
Explanation: Severe hyperkalemia can produce muscle weakness and fatal dysrhythmias. Cardiac monitoring
and urgent treatment are priorities.
Question 11 of 64
Which intervention is appropriate for a client with increased intracranial pressure?
A. Elevate the head of the bed while keeping the neck in neutral alignment ✓ Correct
B. Keep the client flat to maximize blood flow to the brain
C. Flex the client's neck to improve venous drainage from the brain
D. Encourage repeated coughing to increase cerebral oxygenation
Explanation: Head elevation and neutral alignment promote venous drainage and may reduce intracranial
pressure. Neck flexion and coughing can increase pressure.
Question 12 of 64
