ATI FUNDAMENTALS PROCTORED RETAKE
ACTUAL EXAM [QUESTION 1-200] AND
ANSWERS UPDATED 2026/2027 | 100% VERIFIED |
DETAILED RATIONALES – PASS GUARANTEED
A+ GRADED | INSTANT DOWNLOAD
INTRODUCTION
The ATI Fundamentals Proctored Retake is designed to evaluate a nursing student’s ability to
apply foundational nursing knowledge safely and effectively in clinical situations. Rather than
testing memorization alone, fundamentals-level assessment emphasizes clinical judgment,
prioritization, safety, infection prevention, communication, documentation, medication
administration, basic nursing skills, nutrition, mobility, elimination, oxygenation, and
psychosocial care. Students preparing for a retake must be able to recognize subtle changes in
patient status, identify the most appropriate nursing intervention, distinguish expected findings
from complications, and prioritize care using sound clinical reasoning.
This original practice question bank is designed for rigorous retake preparation. The questions
emphasize difficult, scenario-based application rather than simple definitions. Each item contains
four answer choices with one best answer, followed by a rationale explaining both the correct
response and the reasoning behind the distractors. Working through these questions can help
identify knowledge gaps, strengthen prioritization skills, improve recognition of safety risks, and
develop the clinical reasoning expected of beginning nurses. Use the bank alongside your ATI
materials, course resources, and instructor guidance rather than as a substitute for them.
CORE DOMAINS TESTED
1. Safety and Infection Prevention — Standard precautions, transmission-based
precautions, fall prevention, environmental safety, sterile technique, and infection
control.
2. Fundamental Nursing Skills — Assessment, vital signs, positioning, hygiene, comfort
measures, specimen collection, and basic procedures.
3. Clinical Judgment and Prioritization — Recognizing deterioration, identifying urgent
findings, prioritizing patients, and selecting appropriate interventions.
4. Medication Administration — Safe medication practices, routes, adverse effects,
calculations, medication reconciliation, and error prevention.
5. Oxygenation and Respiratory Care — Oxygen delivery, respiratory assessment, airway
management, positioning, and recognition of hypoxia.
6. Nutrition and Hydration — Therapeutic diets, enteral feeding, aspiration prevention,
fluid balance, and nutritional assessment.
7. Mobility and Activity — Transfers, assistive devices, range-of-motion exercises,
pressure injury prevention, and complications of immobility.
, 8. Elimination — Urinary and bowel function, catheter care, constipation, diarrhea,
ostomies, and specimen collection.
9. Skin Integrity and Wound Care — Pressure injuries, wound assessment, dressings,
positioning, and prevention strategies.
10. Pain and Comfort — Pain assessment, pharmacologic and nonpharmacologic
interventions, and reassessment.
11. Communication and Therapeutic Relationships — Therapeutic communication,
cultural considerations, boundaries, and patient education.
12. Psychosocial and Emotional Care — Anxiety, coping, grief, sleep, stress, and
behavioral changes.
13. Legal and Ethical Nursing Practice — Consent, confidentiality, documentation,
delegation, scope of practice, and patient rights.
14. Patient Education — Readiness to learn, health literacy, teach-back, discharge teaching,
and individualized education.
15. Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Concepts — Recognition of imbalance,
intake/output, dehydration, and clinically significant findings.
16. Perioperative and Basic Procedural Care — Preoperative preparation, postoperative
monitoring, complications, and recovery.
17. Aging and Developmental Considerations — Age-related changes and adaptation of
nursing care to developmental needs.
QUESTIONS 1-200
Q1: A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A) A client with a chronic pressure injury who requests assistance repositioning
B) B) A client receiving oxygen who has newly developed confusion and a respiratory rate
of 30/min
C) A client with postoperative pain rated 6/10 who received analgesia 20 min ago
D) A client awaiting discharge who has questions about dietary restrictions
Rationale: B is correct because new confusion and tachypnea in a client receiving oxygen can
indicate worsening hypoxemia and require immediate assessment. A is important but not
immediately life-threatening. C requires reassessment, but the client's condition does not
currently suggest an airway or breathing emergency. D can safely wait. The priority is the client
with a potential ABC-related deterioration.
Q2: A nurse enters a client's room and finds the client lying on the floor. What should the nurse
do first?
A) Complete an incident report
B) B) Assess the client for injury and level of consciousness
C) Notify the provider
D) Move the client back to bed
,Rationale: B is correct because assessment must occur before moving the client or initiating
notifications. A fall may cause occult injury, particularly head or spinal injury. A is completed
after immediate care. C may be necessary after assessment identifies findings requiring provider
notification. D could worsen an undiagnosed injury.
Q3: A nurse is preparing to administer oral medication to a client who is drowsy and has
difficulty swallowing. Which action is most appropriate?
A) Crush all medications and mix them with applesauce
B) B) Assess the client's ability to safely swallow before administration
C) Place the medication at the back of the client's tongue
D) Ask the family member to administer the medication
Rationale: B is correct because dysphagia creates an aspiration risk, and swallowing ability
must be assessed before oral medication administration. A is unsafe because some medications
must not be crushed. C increases aspiration risk. D does not eliminate the client's swallowing
risk and does not substitute for nursing assessment.
Q4: A client has a newly inserted nasogastric tube for enteral feeding. Before initiating the
feeding, which action is most important?
A) Place the client flat
B) B) Verify tube placement according to facility policy
C) Flush the tube with sterile water only
D) Begin the feeding at the prescribed rate immediately
Rationale: B is correct because feeding through a misplaced tube can cause aspiration and
potentially life-threatening complications. A increases aspiration risk. C may be part of tube
care but does not establish safe placement. D should occur only after placement has been
appropriately verified.
Q5: A nurse is teaching a client about use of a walker. Which instruction is appropriate?
A) Move the walker after moving the affected leg
B) B) Move the walker forward, then advance the affected leg
C) Pull the walker toward the body when standing
D) Place the walker several feet ahead before stepping
Rationale: B is correct because the walker should provide a stable base while the affected leg is
advanced. A reverses the appropriate sequence. C can destabilize the client. D creates excessive
distance between the client and the support device and increases fall risk.
Q6: A nurse notices that a sterile glove touches the edge of the bedside table while preparing a
sterile procedure. What should the nurse do?
, A) Continue because the glove remains visually clean
B) B) Replace the contaminated glove before continuing
C) Clean the glove with antiseptic solution
D) Ask another nurse to inspect the glove
Rationale: B is correct because contact with a nonsterile surface contaminates the glove. A
sterile item cannot be restored simply by appearing clean. C does not make the glove sterile. D
does not change the contamination status.
Q7: A client receiving IV fluids develops dyspnea, crackles, and peripheral edema. Which
complication should the nurse suspect?
A) Dehydration
B) B) Fluid volume excess
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Respiratory alkalosis
Rationale: B is correct because dyspnea, pulmonary crackles, and edema are classic findings
associated with fluid volume excess. Dehydration generally produces dry mucous membranes,
thirst, and decreased urine output. Hypoglycemia causes neurologic and adrenergic symptoms.
Respiratory alkalosis is an acid-base disorder rather than the most likely explanation for these
findings.
Q8: A nurse is caring for a client with a suspected infection. Which finding requires the most
immediate attention?
A) Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
B) B) Blood pressure of 84/48 mm Hg with altered mental status
C) Heart rate of 104/min
D) White blood cell count of 13,000/mm³
Rationale: B is correct because hypotension combined with altered mental status may indicate
severe systemic infection and impaired perfusion. Fever, tachycardia, and leukocytosis can
occur with infection but are not individually as immediately concerning as evidence of
circulatory compromise.
Q9: A nurse is teaching a client about incentive spirometry after surgery. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A) “I should use it only when I feel short of breath.”
B) B) “I will inhale slowly and deeply through the mouthpiece and repeat the exercise
regularly.”
C) “I should exhale forcefully into the device.”
D) “I should use it while lying completely flat.”
ACTUAL EXAM [QUESTION 1-200] AND
ANSWERS UPDATED 2026/2027 | 100% VERIFIED |
DETAILED RATIONALES – PASS GUARANTEED
A+ GRADED | INSTANT DOWNLOAD
INTRODUCTION
The ATI Fundamentals Proctored Retake is designed to evaluate a nursing student’s ability to
apply foundational nursing knowledge safely and effectively in clinical situations. Rather than
testing memorization alone, fundamentals-level assessment emphasizes clinical judgment,
prioritization, safety, infection prevention, communication, documentation, medication
administration, basic nursing skills, nutrition, mobility, elimination, oxygenation, and
psychosocial care. Students preparing for a retake must be able to recognize subtle changes in
patient status, identify the most appropriate nursing intervention, distinguish expected findings
from complications, and prioritize care using sound clinical reasoning.
This original practice question bank is designed for rigorous retake preparation. The questions
emphasize difficult, scenario-based application rather than simple definitions. Each item contains
four answer choices with one best answer, followed by a rationale explaining both the correct
response and the reasoning behind the distractors. Working through these questions can help
identify knowledge gaps, strengthen prioritization skills, improve recognition of safety risks, and
develop the clinical reasoning expected of beginning nurses. Use the bank alongside your ATI
materials, course resources, and instructor guidance rather than as a substitute for them.
CORE DOMAINS TESTED
1. Safety and Infection Prevention — Standard precautions, transmission-based
precautions, fall prevention, environmental safety, sterile technique, and infection
control.
2. Fundamental Nursing Skills — Assessment, vital signs, positioning, hygiene, comfort
measures, specimen collection, and basic procedures.
3. Clinical Judgment and Prioritization — Recognizing deterioration, identifying urgent
findings, prioritizing patients, and selecting appropriate interventions.
4. Medication Administration — Safe medication practices, routes, adverse effects,
calculations, medication reconciliation, and error prevention.
5. Oxygenation and Respiratory Care — Oxygen delivery, respiratory assessment, airway
management, positioning, and recognition of hypoxia.
6. Nutrition and Hydration — Therapeutic diets, enteral feeding, aspiration prevention,
fluid balance, and nutritional assessment.
7. Mobility and Activity — Transfers, assistive devices, range-of-motion exercises,
pressure injury prevention, and complications of immobility.
, 8. Elimination — Urinary and bowel function, catheter care, constipation, diarrhea,
ostomies, and specimen collection.
9. Skin Integrity and Wound Care — Pressure injuries, wound assessment, dressings,
positioning, and prevention strategies.
10. Pain and Comfort — Pain assessment, pharmacologic and nonpharmacologic
interventions, and reassessment.
11. Communication and Therapeutic Relationships — Therapeutic communication,
cultural considerations, boundaries, and patient education.
12. Psychosocial and Emotional Care — Anxiety, coping, grief, sleep, stress, and
behavioral changes.
13. Legal and Ethical Nursing Practice — Consent, confidentiality, documentation,
delegation, scope of practice, and patient rights.
14. Patient Education — Readiness to learn, health literacy, teach-back, discharge teaching,
and individualized education.
15. Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Concepts — Recognition of imbalance,
intake/output, dehydration, and clinically significant findings.
16. Perioperative and Basic Procedural Care — Preoperative preparation, postoperative
monitoring, complications, and recovery.
17. Aging and Developmental Considerations — Age-related changes and adaptation of
nursing care to developmental needs.
QUESTIONS 1-200
Q1: A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A) A client with a chronic pressure injury who requests assistance repositioning
B) B) A client receiving oxygen who has newly developed confusion and a respiratory rate
of 30/min
C) A client with postoperative pain rated 6/10 who received analgesia 20 min ago
D) A client awaiting discharge who has questions about dietary restrictions
Rationale: B is correct because new confusion and tachypnea in a client receiving oxygen can
indicate worsening hypoxemia and require immediate assessment. A is important but not
immediately life-threatening. C requires reassessment, but the client's condition does not
currently suggest an airway or breathing emergency. D can safely wait. The priority is the client
with a potential ABC-related deterioration.
Q2: A nurse enters a client's room and finds the client lying on the floor. What should the nurse
do first?
A) Complete an incident report
B) B) Assess the client for injury and level of consciousness
C) Notify the provider
D) Move the client back to bed
,Rationale: B is correct because assessment must occur before moving the client or initiating
notifications. A fall may cause occult injury, particularly head or spinal injury. A is completed
after immediate care. C may be necessary after assessment identifies findings requiring provider
notification. D could worsen an undiagnosed injury.
Q3: A nurse is preparing to administer oral medication to a client who is drowsy and has
difficulty swallowing. Which action is most appropriate?
A) Crush all medications and mix them with applesauce
B) B) Assess the client's ability to safely swallow before administration
C) Place the medication at the back of the client's tongue
D) Ask the family member to administer the medication
Rationale: B is correct because dysphagia creates an aspiration risk, and swallowing ability
must be assessed before oral medication administration. A is unsafe because some medications
must not be crushed. C increases aspiration risk. D does not eliminate the client's swallowing
risk and does not substitute for nursing assessment.
Q4: A client has a newly inserted nasogastric tube for enteral feeding. Before initiating the
feeding, which action is most important?
A) Place the client flat
B) B) Verify tube placement according to facility policy
C) Flush the tube with sterile water only
D) Begin the feeding at the prescribed rate immediately
Rationale: B is correct because feeding through a misplaced tube can cause aspiration and
potentially life-threatening complications. A increases aspiration risk. C may be part of tube
care but does not establish safe placement. D should occur only after placement has been
appropriately verified.
Q5: A nurse is teaching a client about use of a walker. Which instruction is appropriate?
A) Move the walker after moving the affected leg
B) B) Move the walker forward, then advance the affected leg
C) Pull the walker toward the body when standing
D) Place the walker several feet ahead before stepping
Rationale: B is correct because the walker should provide a stable base while the affected leg is
advanced. A reverses the appropriate sequence. C can destabilize the client. D creates excessive
distance between the client and the support device and increases fall risk.
Q6: A nurse notices that a sterile glove touches the edge of the bedside table while preparing a
sterile procedure. What should the nurse do?
, A) Continue because the glove remains visually clean
B) B) Replace the contaminated glove before continuing
C) Clean the glove with antiseptic solution
D) Ask another nurse to inspect the glove
Rationale: B is correct because contact with a nonsterile surface contaminates the glove. A
sterile item cannot be restored simply by appearing clean. C does not make the glove sterile. D
does not change the contamination status.
Q7: A client receiving IV fluids develops dyspnea, crackles, and peripheral edema. Which
complication should the nurse suspect?
A) Dehydration
B) B) Fluid volume excess
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Respiratory alkalosis
Rationale: B is correct because dyspnea, pulmonary crackles, and edema are classic findings
associated with fluid volume excess. Dehydration generally produces dry mucous membranes,
thirst, and decreased urine output. Hypoglycemia causes neurologic and adrenergic symptoms.
Respiratory alkalosis is an acid-base disorder rather than the most likely explanation for these
findings.
Q8: A nurse is caring for a client with a suspected infection. Which finding requires the most
immediate attention?
A) Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
B) B) Blood pressure of 84/48 mm Hg with altered mental status
C) Heart rate of 104/min
D) White blood cell count of 13,000/mm³
Rationale: B is correct because hypotension combined with altered mental status may indicate
severe systemic infection and impaired perfusion. Fever, tachycardia, and leukocytosis can
occur with infection but are not individually as immediately concerning as evidence of
circulatory compromise.
Q9: A nurse is teaching a client about incentive spirometry after surgery. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A) “I should use it only when I feel short of breath.”
B) B) “I will inhale slowly and deeply through the mouthpiece and repeat the exercise
regularly.”
C) “I should exhale forcefully into the device.”
D) “I should use it while lying completely flat.”
