8/22/25, 9:39 PM Evolve: Med Surg Practice Exam 475
EVOLVE MED SURG STUDY GUIDE EXAM 475 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND ACCURATE DETAILED ANSWERS
\VERIFIED SOLUTIONS GRADED A+\LATEST UPDATE
2025-2026
A 67-year-old woman who C) Osteoporosis resulting from hormonal changes.
lives alone is admitted after
The most common cause of a fractured hip in elderly women is
tripping on a rug in her
osteoporosis,
home and fractures her resulting from reduced calcium in the bones as a result of
hip. Which hormonal changes in later life (C). (A) may or may not have
contributed to the accident, but it had nothing to do with the hip
predisposing factor
being involved. (B) is not a common condition of the elderly; it is
probably led to the common in chronic renal failure. (D) may occur in some people,
fracture in the proximal but does not affect the fragility of the bones as osteoporosis
does.
end of her femur?
A) Failing eyesight resulting
in an unsafe environment.
B) Renal osteodystrophy
resulting from chronic
renal failure.
C) Osteoporosis resulting
from hormonal changes.
D) Cardiovascular changes
resulting in
small strokes which impair
mental acuity.
Despite several eye D) Medium yellow.
surgeries, a 78-year- old
client who lives alone has Yellow is the easiest for a person with failing vision to see (D). (A)
will be almost
persistent vision
impossible to see at night because the shadows of the
problems. The visiting
steps will be too difficult to determine, and would pose
nurse is
discussing painting the house a safety hazard. (B) is very hard to see with a glare
with the from
client. The nurse suggests
the sun and it could hurt the eyes in the daytime to look
/ 1/77
,8/22/25, 9:39 PM Evolve: Med Surg Practice Exam 475
that the edge of the steps at them. (C) is a pastel color and is difficult for elderly
should be painted which clients to see.
color?
A) Black.
B) White.
C) Light green.
D) Medium yellow.
The nurse is assessing a A) Cyanosis of the fingertips.
client with bacterial
meningitis. Which assessment Septic emboli secondary to meningitis commonly lodge
finding indicates the client in the small arterioles of the extremities, causing a
may have developed decrease in circulation to the hands (A) which may lead
septic emboli? to
A) Cyanosis of the fingertips. gangrene. (B, C, and D) are abnormal findings, but do
B) Bradycardia and bradypnea. not indicate the development of septic emboli.
C) Presence of S3 and S4 heart
sounds.
D) 3+ pitting edema of
the lower
extremities.
In assessing a client C) Potassium.
diagnosed with
Clients with primary aldosteronism exhibit a profound decline in
primary
the serum levels of potassium (C) (hypokalemia)--hypertension
hyperaldosteronism, the is the most prominent and universal sign.
nurse expects the (A) is normal or elevated, depending on the amount of water
reabsorbed with the sodium. (B) is decreased with diabetes
laboratory test results to
insipidus. (D) is not affected by primary
indicate a decreased aldosteronism.
serum level of which
substance?
A) Sodium.
B) Antidiuretic hormone.
C) Potassium.
D) Glucose.
/ 2/77
,8/22/25, 9:39 PM Evolve: Med Surg Practice Exam 475
D) Adequate cellular nourishment.
A client with diabetes mellitus
is Diabetes mellitus Type 1 is characterized by
experiencing polyphagia. hyperglycemia that precipitates glucosuria and polyuria
Which outcome statement is (frequent urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and
the priority for this client? polyphagia (excessive hunger). Polyphagia is a
A) Fluid and electrolyte
balance. consequence of cellular
B) Prevention of water toxicity. malnourishment when insulin deficiency prevents
C) Reduced glucose in the utilization of glucose for energy, so the outcome
urine.
statement should include stabilization of adequate
D) Adequate cellular
nourishment. cellular nutrition (D). (A, B, and C) relate to subsequent
osmolar fluid shifts related to glucosuria, polyuria,
and polydipsia.
Based on the analysis of the C) Anticoagulation therapy.
client's atrial fibrillation, the
nurse should prepare the The client is experiencing atrial fibrillation, and the
client for which treatment nurse should prepare the client for anticoagulation
protocol? therapy (C) which should be prescribed before rhythm
A) Diuretic therapy. control therapies to prevent cardioembolic events
B) Pacemaker implantation. which result from blood pooling in the fibrillating atria.
C) Anticoagulation therapy.
(A, B, and D) are not indicated.
D) Cardiac catheterization.
Which information about C) Yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous
mammograms is most normal x-rays.
important to provide a post-
menopausal female client? The current breast screening recommendation is a yearly
mammogram after age 40
A) Breast self-examinations
(C). Breast self-exam (A) continues to be a priority
are not needed if annual
recommendation for all women because a small lump
mammograms are
(or tumor) is often first felt by a woman before a
obtained.
B) Radiation exposure is mammogram is obtained. The radiation exposure from a
minimized by mammogram is low, so (B) is not normally provided. The
shielding the abdomen with a
frequency of using routine and ultrasound mammograms
lead-lined apron.
(D) in women with high-risk variables, such as a history
C) Yearly mammograms
of breast cancer, the presence of BRC1 and BRC2 genes,
should be done
or 2 first-degree relatives with breast cancer, should be
regardless of previous
recommended and followed closely by the healthcare
normal x-rays.
provider.
D) Women at high risk should
have annual
/ 3/77
, 8/22/25, 9:39 PM Evolve: Med Surg Practice Exam 475
routine and ultrasound
mammograms.
In assessing cancer risk, the B) A 50-year-old whose mother had unilateral breast cancer.
nurse identifies which woman
as being at greatest risk of The most predictive risk factors for development of
developing breast cancer? breast cancer are over 40 years of age and a positive
A) A 35-year-old family history (occurrence in the immediate family, i.e.,
multipara who never mother or sister). Other risk factors include nulliparity,
breastfed. no history of breastfeeding, early
B) A 50-year-old whose menarche and late menopause. Although all of the
mother had unilateral women described have one of the risk factors for
breast cancer. developing breast cancer, (B) has the greater risk over
C) A 55-year-old whose (A, C, and D).
mother-in-law had bilateral
breast cancer.
D) A 20-year-old whose
menarche occurred
at age 9.
/ 4/77
EVOLVE MED SURG STUDY GUIDE EXAM 475 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND ACCURATE DETAILED ANSWERS
\VERIFIED SOLUTIONS GRADED A+\LATEST UPDATE
2025-2026
A 67-year-old woman who C) Osteoporosis resulting from hormonal changes.
lives alone is admitted after
The most common cause of a fractured hip in elderly women is
tripping on a rug in her
osteoporosis,
home and fractures her resulting from reduced calcium in the bones as a result of
hip. Which hormonal changes in later life (C). (A) may or may not have
contributed to the accident, but it had nothing to do with the hip
predisposing factor
being involved. (B) is not a common condition of the elderly; it is
probably led to the common in chronic renal failure. (D) may occur in some people,
fracture in the proximal but does not affect the fragility of the bones as osteoporosis
does.
end of her femur?
A) Failing eyesight resulting
in an unsafe environment.
B) Renal osteodystrophy
resulting from chronic
renal failure.
C) Osteoporosis resulting
from hormonal changes.
D) Cardiovascular changes
resulting in
small strokes which impair
mental acuity.
Despite several eye D) Medium yellow.
surgeries, a 78-year- old
client who lives alone has Yellow is the easiest for a person with failing vision to see (D). (A)
will be almost
persistent vision
impossible to see at night because the shadows of the
problems. The visiting
steps will be too difficult to determine, and would pose
nurse is
discussing painting the house a safety hazard. (B) is very hard to see with a glare
with the from
client. The nurse suggests
the sun and it could hurt the eyes in the daytime to look
/ 1/77
,8/22/25, 9:39 PM Evolve: Med Surg Practice Exam 475
that the edge of the steps at them. (C) is a pastel color and is difficult for elderly
should be painted which clients to see.
color?
A) Black.
B) White.
C) Light green.
D) Medium yellow.
The nurse is assessing a A) Cyanosis of the fingertips.
client with bacterial
meningitis. Which assessment Septic emboli secondary to meningitis commonly lodge
finding indicates the client in the small arterioles of the extremities, causing a
may have developed decrease in circulation to the hands (A) which may lead
septic emboli? to
A) Cyanosis of the fingertips. gangrene. (B, C, and D) are abnormal findings, but do
B) Bradycardia and bradypnea. not indicate the development of septic emboli.
C) Presence of S3 and S4 heart
sounds.
D) 3+ pitting edema of
the lower
extremities.
In assessing a client C) Potassium.
diagnosed with
Clients with primary aldosteronism exhibit a profound decline in
primary
the serum levels of potassium (C) (hypokalemia)--hypertension
hyperaldosteronism, the is the most prominent and universal sign.
nurse expects the (A) is normal or elevated, depending on the amount of water
reabsorbed with the sodium. (B) is decreased with diabetes
laboratory test results to
insipidus. (D) is not affected by primary
indicate a decreased aldosteronism.
serum level of which
substance?
A) Sodium.
B) Antidiuretic hormone.
C) Potassium.
D) Glucose.
/ 2/77
,8/22/25, 9:39 PM Evolve: Med Surg Practice Exam 475
D) Adequate cellular nourishment.
A client with diabetes mellitus
is Diabetes mellitus Type 1 is characterized by
experiencing polyphagia. hyperglycemia that precipitates glucosuria and polyuria
Which outcome statement is (frequent urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and
the priority for this client? polyphagia (excessive hunger). Polyphagia is a
A) Fluid and electrolyte
balance. consequence of cellular
B) Prevention of water toxicity. malnourishment when insulin deficiency prevents
C) Reduced glucose in the utilization of glucose for energy, so the outcome
urine.
statement should include stabilization of adequate
D) Adequate cellular
nourishment. cellular nutrition (D). (A, B, and C) relate to subsequent
osmolar fluid shifts related to glucosuria, polyuria,
and polydipsia.
Based on the analysis of the C) Anticoagulation therapy.
client's atrial fibrillation, the
nurse should prepare the The client is experiencing atrial fibrillation, and the
client for which treatment nurse should prepare the client for anticoagulation
protocol? therapy (C) which should be prescribed before rhythm
A) Diuretic therapy. control therapies to prevent cardioembolic events
B) Pacemaker implantation. which result from blood pooling in the fibrillating atria.
C) Anticoagulation therapy.
(A, B, and D) are not indicated.
D) Cardiac catheterization.
Which information about C) Yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous
mammograms is most normal x-rays.
important to provide a post-
menopausal female client? The current breast screening recommendation is a yearly
mammogram after age 40
A) Breast self-examinations
(C). Breast self-exam (A) continues to be a priority
are not needed if annual
recommendation for all women because a small lump
mammograms are
(or tumor) is often first felt by a woman before a
obtained.
B) Radiation exposure is mammogram is obtained. The radiation exposure from a
minimized by mammogram is low, so (B) is not normally provided. The
shielding the abdomen with a
frequency of using routine and ultrasound mammograms
lead-lined apron.
(D) in women with high-risk variables, such as a history
C) Yearly mammograms
of breast cancer, the presence of BRC1 and BRC2 genes,
should be done
or 2 first-degree relatives with breast cancer, should be
regardless of previous
recommended and followed closely by the healthcare
normal x-rays.
provider.
D) Women at high risk should
have annual
/ 3/77
, 8/22/25, 9:39 PM Evolve: Med Surg Practice Exam 475
routine and ultrasound
mammograms.
In assessing cancer risk, the B) A 50-year-old whose mother had unilateral breast cancer.
nurse identifies which woman
as being at greatest risk of The most predictive risk factors for development of
developing breast cancer? breast cancer are over 40 years of age and a positive
A) A 35-year-old family history (occurrence in the immediate family, i.e.,
multipara who never mother or sister). Other risk factors include nulliparity,
breastfed. no history of breastfeeding, early
B) A 50-year-old whose menarche and late menopause. Although all of the
mother had unilateral women described have one of the risk factors for
breast cancer. developing breast cancer, (B) has the greater risk over
C) A 55-year-old whose (A, C, and D).
mother-in-law had bilateral
breast cancer.
D) A 20-year-old whose
menarche occurred
at age 9.
/ 4/77
