NAVLE 2027 ALL SET ANSWERS AND QUESTIONS
SET A+
✔✔What distinguishes lymphoma from leukemia?
A - Lymphoma is benign
B - Leukemia is derived only from myeloid cells
C - Leukemia is the precursor to lymphoma
D - Lymphoma originates in solid tissues
E - Lymphoma occurs only in dogs - ✔✔D
Lymphoma=solid organs and bone marrow. Leukemia=blood circulation and bone
marrow.
Lymphoma originates in solid tissues. In general, lymphoma and leukemia both arise
from malignant transformation of lymphoid cells and are named based on tumor
location. Lymphoma is a tumor of lymphocytes that originates mainly in solid lymphoid
tissues including the bone marrow, thymus, lymph nodes, and spleen. In addition,
common extranodal sites include the skin, eye, CNS, testis, and bone. Lymphomas are
further distinguished according to their location (multicentric, cutaneous, CNS, GI).
Leukemias can also arise from myeloid cells (monocytes, basophils, eosinoiphils,
megakaryocytes, erythrocytic precursor cells). Leukemia is a malignant neoplastic
disease of the WBC or RBC precursors with neoplastic cells in the bone marrow and
peripheral blood. Leukemias are further distinguished according to their behaviour
(acute or chronic) and their precursor cell (lymphoid or myeloid), so you will see names
like Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) or Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML).
In cats, FeLV infection is an important risk factor for both leukemia and lymphoma. FIV
infected cats have a higher than expected incidence of FeLV-negative lymphomas.
✔✔You have diagnosed nitrate poisoning in a group of yearling cattle which were
grazing Sudan grass. Which of the following is the most effective treatment?
A - Digitalis
,B - Sodium thiosulfate
C - Vitamin B12
D - Methylene blue
E - Calcium gluconate - ✔✔D
Nitate toxicosis causes methemoglobinemia, in which the blood appears chocolate
brown. As a result the oxygen carrying capacity and delivery is greatly reduced and the
animal may die. Methylene blue is usually administered IV as a 1% to 4% solution, with
a total dose of 4 to 15 mg.Kg body weight to cattle, for treating nitrate toxicosis.
Nitrates are found in high levels in many plants and some water sources. The nitrate is
converted in the rumen to nitrite, absorbed into blood, which causes oxidation of the
heme iron to the +3 ferrous state (Called methemoglobin). Methylene blue restores the
iron in hemoglobin to its normal (reduced) oxygen-carrying state. This is achieved by
providing an artificial electron acceptor for NADPH methemoglobin reductase (RBCs
usually don't have one; the presence of methylene blue allows the enzyme to function at
5A? normal levels). The NADPH is generated via the hexose monophosphate shunt.
✔✔The Animal Welfare Act is enforced by which U.S. government agency?
A - Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC)
B - Department of Agriculture (USDA)
C - Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
D - National Institute of Health (NIH)
E - Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) - ✔✔B
The United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) enforces the Animal Welfare Act.
Specifically, it is the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) within the
USDA that is responsible.
The Animal Welfare act sets minimal standards for care of laboratory animals including
dogs, cats and non-human primates. It regulates the pet trade, animal transportation
and exhibition and licensure of animal dealers. Since 1976 it has prohibited most forms
of commercial animal fighting.
✔✔Fractures of the proximal sesamoid bones in horses are often associated with
damage to which structure?
A - Suspensory ligament
B - Superior check ligament
C - Deep digital flexor tendon
D - Superficial digital flexor tendon
E - Impar ligament - ✔✔A
,The suspensory ligament is most likely to be damaged with fracture of the proximal
sesamoids due to its insertion onto these bones. Proximal sesamoid fractures are
relatively common, caused by overextension.
The prognosis for return to soundness is often predicated on the extent of the damage
to the suspensory apparatus.
Proximal sesamoid fractures and their attendant suspensory apparatus problems are
the number one cause of racetrack deaths.
✔✔Which one of the following diseases is characterized by schistocytes on a complete
blood count?
A - Systemic lupus erythematosus
B - Cyanocobalamin deficiency
C - Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D - Methemoglobinemia
E - Acetaminophen toxicity - ✔✔C
Disseminated intravascular coagulation. Schistocytes are produced by the mechanical
fragmentation of erythrocytes on intravascular fibrin strands.
They are most commonly associated with conditions that affect blood flow or clotting like
disseminated intravascular coagulation(DIC), heartworm, hemangiosarcoma and
glomerulonephritis.
Cobalamin deficiency causes a macrocytic anemia (pernicious anemia).
Systemic lupus erythematosus may cause anemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia or
leukocytosis.
Think of methemoglobinemia, heinz bodies and hepatotoxicity with acetaminophen
toxicity in cats.
✔✔A 6-year old Sun Conure presents for evaluation of a skin lesion. The owner reports
that the bird is very sensitive on the wing near the lesion. On your exam, you note an
oval swelling involving the feather follicle as seen in the image below. What is the best
treatment for feather cysts?
A - Squeeze and express the material out of the feather cyst
B - Lance and drain the feather cyst, flush with saline
C - No treatment is necessary as feather cysts typically resolve spontaneously
D - Surgical removal of the feather cyst and follicle
E - Treat with systemic antibiotics for 4-6 weeks - ✔✔D
, Feather cysts are the avian equivalent of an ingrown hair. A growing feather is unable to
protrude through the skin and curls within the follicle. Since feathers are much larger
than hairs, cysts can be quite large and painful. They commonly are found in the
primary feathers of the wing. The cysts contain keratinized feather material that can be
expressed or excised but commonly recur. Treatment of choice is surgical removal of
the involved feather follicle.
✔✔Two bucket-fed veal calves are depressed and stunted and have sticky feces
coating their hindquarters. Fluid-splashing sounds are audible during auscultation over
the left flank when a calf is drinking. Passage of a stomach tube obtains a rancid-
smelling liquid with a pH of 5.2 [N=5.9-6.2] Which one of the following choices is the
most appropriate treatment?
A - Remove fermented rumen contents, flush with saline
B - Wean affected calves; Shift to bottle-feeding for well calves
C - Vitamin E/Selenium injections, plus dietary supplements
D - Cull affected calves
E - Inoculate rumen fluid from a healthy cow into calf by stomach tube - ✔✔A. Remove
fermented rumen contents, flush with saline.
This is the clinical picture of a ruminal drinker calf with chronic indigestion from milk
deposited directly into the rumen. Treat by removing the fermented material and
flushing the rumen with saline. Attempt to induce gastric/reticular groove closure during
feeding by inducing vigorous sucking activity with a finger before feeding milk. If calves
relapse, consider weaning. The problem occurs due to failure of the gastric groove
reflex, which normally shunts milk directly into the abomasum, (bypassing the rumen).
Most often seen in bucket fed calves who gulp their milk.
✔✔A 3-year old castrated male Doberman Pinscher presents for acute onset non-
productive vomiting of 3 hours duration. On exam, the patient is extremely lethargic,
tachycardic, has weak pulses and a distended abdomen. Following standard initial
emergency treatment for suspected gastric dilation and volvulus, you would confirm the
diagnosis with what imaging procedure?
A - Right lateral recumbency abdominal radiograph
B - Ventral recumbency abdominal radiograph
C - Abdominal ultrasound exam
D - Left lateral recumbency abdominal radiograph
E - Barium contrast abdominal radiograph
F - Dorsal recumbency abdominal radiograph - ✔✔A
A typical GDV occurs with repositioning of the pylorus to the left dorsal abdomen. A
right lateral radiographic image is the best position for revealing a gas filled left dorsally-
displaced pylorus with a gas-filled ventral fundus separated by a soft tissue band
(compartmented stomach). Although the features of a malpositioned stomach may be
observed on the other radiographic views, they are often more difficult to interpret than
SET A+
✔✔What distinguishes lymphoma from leukemia?
A - Lymphoma is benign
B - Leukemia is derived only from myeloid cells
C - Leukemia is the precursor to lymphoma
D - Lymphoma originates in solid tissues
E - Lymphoma occurs only in dogs - ✔✔D
Lymphoma=solid organs and bone marrow. Leukemia=blood circulation and bone
marrow.
Lymphoma originates in solid tissues. In general, lymphoma and leukemia both arise
from malignant transformation of lymphoid cells and are named based on tumor
location. Lymphoma is a tumor of lymphocytes that originates mainly in solid lymphoid
tissues including the bone marrow, thymus, lymph nodes, and spleen. In addition,
common extranodal sites include the skin, eye, CNS, testis, and bone. Lymphomas are
further distinguished according to their location (multicentric, cutaneous, CNS, GI).
Leukemias can also arise from myeloid cells (monocytes, basophils, eosinoiphils,
megakaryocytes, erythrocytic precursor cells). Leukemia is a malignant neoplastic
disease of the WBC or RBC precursors with neoplastic cells in the bone marrow and
peripheral blood. Leukemias are further distinguished according to their behaviour
(acute or chronic) and their precursor cell (lymphoid or myeloid), so you will see names
like Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) or Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML).
In cats, FeLV infection is an important risk factor for both leukemia and lymphoma. FIV
infected cats have a higher than expected incidence of FeLV-negative lymphomas.
✔✔You have diagnosed nitrate poisoning in a group of yearling cattle which were
grazing Sudan grass. Which of the following is the most effective treatment?
A - Digitalis
,B - Sodium thiosulfate
C - Vitamin B12
D - Methylene blue
E - Calcium gluconate - ✔✔D
Nitate toxicosis causes methemoglobinemia, in which the blood appears chocolate
brown. As a result the oxygen carrying capacity and delivery is greatly reduced and the
animal may die. Methylene blue is usually administered IV as a 1% to 4% solution, with
a total dose of 4 to 15 mg.Kg body weight to cattle, for treating nitrate toxicosis.
Nitrates are found in high levels in many plants and some water sources. The nitrate is
converted in the rumen to nitrite, absorbed into blood, which causes oxidation of the
heme iron to the +3 ferrous state (Called methemoglobin). Methylene blue restores the
iron in hemoglobin to its normal (reduced) oxygen-carrying state. This is achieved by
providing an artificial electron acceptor for NADPH methemoglobin reductase (RBCs
usually don't have one; the presence of methylene blue allows the enzyme to function at
5A? normal levels). The NADPH is generated via the hexose monophosphate shunt.
✔✔The Animal Welfare Act is enforced by which U.S. government agency?
A - Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC)
B - Department of Agriculture (USDA)
C - Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
D - National Institute of Health (NIH)
E - Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) - ✔✔B
The United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) enforces the Animal Welfare Act.
Specifically, it is the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) within the
USDA that is responsible.
The Animal Welfare act sets minimal standards for care of laboratory animals including
dogs, cats and non-human primates. It regulates the pet trade, animal transportation
and exhibition and licensure of animal dealers. Since 1976 it has prohibited most forms
of commercial animal fighting.
✔✔Fractures of the proximal sesamoid bones in horses are often associated with
damage to which structure?
A - Suspensory ligament
B - Superior check ligament
C - Deep digital flexor tendon
D - Superficial digital flexor tendon
E - Impar ligament - ✔✔A
,The suspensory ligament is most likely to be damaged with fracture of the proximal
sesamoids due to its insertion onto these bones. Proximal sesamoid fractures are
relatively common, caused by overextension.
The prognosis for return to soundness is often predicated on the extent of the damage
to the suspensory apparatus.
Proximal sesamoid fractures and their attendant suspensory apparatus problems are
the number one cause of racetrack deaths.
✔✔Which one of the following diseases is characterized by schistocytes on a complete
blood count?
A - Systemic lupus erythematosus
B - Cyanocobalamin deficiency
C - Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D - Methemoglobinemia
E - Acetaminophen toxicity - ✔✔C
Disseminated intravascular coagulation. Schistocytes are produced by the mechanical
fragmentation of erythrocytes on intravascular fibrin strands.
They are most commonly associated with conditions that affect blood flow or clotting like
disseminated intravascular coagulation(DIC), heartworm, hemangiosarcoma and
glomerulonephritis.
Cobalamin deficiency causes a macrocytic anemia (pernicious anemia).
Systemic lupus erythematosus may cause anemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia or
leukocytosis.
Think of methemoglobinemia, heinz bodies and hepatotoxicity with acetaminophen
toxicity in cats.
✔✔A 6-year old Sun Conure presents for evaluation of a skin lesion. The owner reports
that the bird is very sensitive on the wing near the lesion. On your exam, you note an
oval swelling involving the feather follicle as seen in the image below. What is the best
treatment for feather cysts?
A - Squeeze and express the material out of the feather cyst
B - Lance and drain the feather cyst, flush with saline
C - No treatment is necessary as feather cysts typically resolve spontaneously
D - Surgical removal of the feather cyst and follicle
E - Treat with systemic antibiotics for 4-6 weeks - ✔✔D
, Feather cysts are the avian equivalent of an ingrown hair. A growing feather is unable to
protrude through the skin and curls within the follicle. Since feathers are much larger
than hairs, cysts can be quite large and painful. They commonly are found in the
primary feathers of the wing. The cysts contain keratinized feather material that can be
expressed or excised but commonly recur. Treatment of choice is surgical removal of
the involved feather follicle.
✔✔Two bucket-fed veal calves are depressed and stunted and have sticky feces
coating their hindquarters. Fluid-splashing sounds are audible during auscultation over
the left flank when a calf is drinking. Passage of a stomach tube obtains a rancid-
smelling liquid with a pH of 5.2 [N=5.9-6.2] Which one of the following choices is the
most appropriate treatment?
A - Remove fermented rumen contents, flush with saline
B - Wean affected calves; Shift to bottle-feeding for well calves
C - Vitamin E/Selenium injections, plus dietary supplements
D - Cull affected calves
E - Inoculate rumen fluid from a healthy cow into calf by stomach tube - ✔✔A. Remove
fermented rumen contents, flush with saline.
This is the clinical picture of a ruminal drinker calf with chronic indigestion from milk
deposited directly into the rumen. Treat by removing the fermented material and
flushing the rumen with saline. Attempt to induce gastric/reticular groove closure during
feeding by inducing vigorous sucking activity with a finger before feeding milk. If calves
relapse, consider weaning. The problem occurs due to failure of the gastric groove
reflex, which normally shunts milk directly into the abomasum, (bypassing the rumen).
Most often seen in bucket fed calves who gulp their milk.
✔✔A 3-year old castrated male Doberman Pinscher presents for acute onset non-
productive vomiting of 3 hours duration. On exam, the patient is extremely lethargic,
tachycardic, has weak pulses and a distended abdomen. Following standard initial
emergency treatment for suspected gastric dilation and volvulus, you would confirm the
diagnosis with what imaging procedure?
A - Right lateral recumbency abdominal radiograph
B - Ventral recumbency abdominal radiograph
C - Abdominal ultrasound exam
D - Left lateral recumbency abdominal radiograph
E - Barium contrast abdominal radiograph
F - Dorsal recumbency abdominal radiograph - ✔✔A
A typical GDV occurs with repositioning of the pylorus to the left dorsal abdomen. A
right lateral radiographic image is the best position for revealing a gas filled left dorsally-
displaced pylorus with a gas-filled ventral fundus separated by a soft tissue band
(compartmented stomach). Although the features of a malpositioned stomach may be
observed on the other radiographic views, they are often more difficult to interpret than
