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A client is unhappy with the health care provided to him. He approaches the nurse and informs her that he is leaving the facility. The client has not been discharged by the physician. The nurse finds that the client has dressed and is ready to go. What would the nurse's action be in this situation? a. The nurse should warn the client that he cannot come to the hospital again. b. The nurse should get the client restrained and call the physician. c. The nurse should call the nursing superv...

A parish nurse is preparing to provide a health promotion class to a group of adults in the parish. In preparing to meet the learning needs of this group, the nurse recognizes which of the following as a characteristic of an adult learner? a. Previous experiences have little impact on learning. b. Peer group acceptance is a critical issue for this age group. c. The material presented should focus on future application. d. Their readiness to learn is often related to a developmental task o...

A nurse is educating a newly licensed nurse about The Joint Commission's National Patient Safety Goals. Which of the following goals does the nurse include when providing the education? A) Preventing diabetes B) Preventing surgical-site infections C) Preventing myocardial infarctions D) Preventing cerebrovascular accidents - Answer B) Preventing surgical-site infections Client falls out of bed and sprains their wrist A) Adverse Event B) Near misses C) Sentinel Event D) Cli...

Organs of the GI tract - Answer Stomach, Small Intestine, Large Intestine The nurse is planning care for a newly admitted bed-bound older adult client. Which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate for this client? a. Risk of Bowel Incontinence b. Disturbed Body Image c. Risk of Diarrhea d. Risk of Constipation - Answer D. Risk for Constipation The nurse is providing care of a client who ignores the urge to defecate when at work. The client states, "I don't like...

health promotion - Answer improving health and preventing disease disease prevention - Answer actions to reduce or stop disease primary prevention - Answer prevent disease before it occurs secondary prevention - Answer early detection and treatment tertiary prevention - Answer reduce complications of disease health status - Answer overall physical, mental, and social well-being factors affecting health - Answer genetics, lifestyle, environment...

Protein - Answer Macronutrient used for tissue repair, growth, enzymes, and energy; provides 4 calories per gram. Carbohydrates - Answer Main energy source for the body; provide 4 calories per gram. Fats (Lipids) - Answer Macronutrient used for energy storage, organ protection, insulation, and vitamin transport; provides 9 calories per gram. Fiber - Answer Indigestible carbohydrate that promotes bowel movements and helps control cholesterol and blood sugar. Vitami...

The nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 20 weeks gestation and obtains a hemoglobin level. Which result would be a cause for concern? A - 12.8 g/dl B - 10.6 g/dl C - 11.9 g/dl D - 11.2 g/dl - Answer B - 10.6 g/dl A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a pregnant woman and notes that she is gravida 2. The nurse interprets this to indicate the number of : A - Births B - Spontaneous abortions (miscarriages) C - Pregnancies D - Preterm Births - Answer C - Pregnan...

phases of endometrial (uterine) cycle - Answer Proliferative phase Endometrium thickens and estrogen increases Corresponds to follicular phase Secretory phase Progesterone influences and preps for implantation Corresponds to ovulation (3 days before menstruation) Ischemic phase No fertilization and estrogen/progesterone drop Corresponds with menstrual flow beginning Menstrual phase Endometrium lining sloughs away from uterine wall Corresponds with the end of cycle...

Sodium - Answer 135-145 mEq/L Potassium - Answer 3.5-5.0 mEq/L Calcium - Answer 8.5-10.5 mg/dL pH of urine - Answer 5-8 (6 is ideal) Fasting glucose - Answer <100 mg/dL Cholesterol - Answer 140-199 mg/dL Hematocrit - Answer 42-52% Hemoglobin - Answer 12-18 g/dL Pre-albumin - Answer 19-38 mg/dL Albumin - Answer 3.4-5.4 g/dL True or False: A clear liquid diet can include substances that become clear when heated to b...

An older adult client tells the nurse, "I just don't seem to have an appetite and food just doesn't taste as good as it used to." The nurse understands that which factor may be playing a role in this client's lack of appetite? Select all that apply. A - Ill fitting dentures B - Decreased saliva production C - Missing teeth D - Decrease number of taste buds E - Swallowing difficulties - Answer B - Decreased saliva production D - Decrease number of taste buds The nu...

An older adult client tells the nurse, "I just don't seem to have an appetite and food just doesn't taste as good as it used to." The nurse understands that which factor may be playing a role in this client's lack of appetite? Select all that apply. A - Ill fitting dentures B - Decreased saliva production C - Missing teeth D - Decrease number of taste buds E - Swallowing difficulties - Answer B - Decreased saliva production D - Decrease number of taste buds The nu...

ac - Answer before meals pc - Answer after meals bid - Answer twice a day tid - Answer three times a day qid - Answer four times a day qh - Answer every hour qn - Answer every night stat - Answer immediately prn - Answer as needed biw - Answer twice per week cap / caps - Answer capsule CR - Answer controlled release LA - Answer Long lasting SR - Answer slow release EC - Answer ent...

1 Exam (elaborations) RNSG 1301- EPCC: EXAM 1 Pharmacology Questions and All Correct Answers. 2 Exam (elaborations) RNSG 1301 Quiz 1 and 2 and Exam 1 Questions and All Correct Answers. 3 Exam (elaborations) RNSG 1301 PHARM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED AND ACTUAL ANSWERS.

Chemicals are being tested in laboratory animals to assess their effectiveness as potential drugs. What phase of drug development is this? - Answer Preclinical What effect is decreased hepatic blood flow likely to have on the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of an older adult? - Answer Drug clearance is likely to be slower Using the nursing process in medication therapy ensures that - Answer The patient receives their medication efficiently and effectively Which of t...

How is hypertension defined with regard to blood pressure readings? - Answer systolic pressure above 140 mm Hg or diastolic pressure above 90 mm Hg A client is diagnosed with hypertension and is being treated with captopril. A client with which diagnosis should be prescribed with captopril as the first-line treatment? - Answer diabetes mellitus What additional medication will best increase the effectiveness of blood pressure control in this client prescribed losartan? - Answer ...

A nurse has an order to administer heparin. Before initiating this therapy, a priority nursing assessment will be the client's: aPTT. sodium and potassium levels. heart rate and pulse. blood glucose level. - Answer aPTT. Explanation: Before initiating therapy, it is important to review the client's aPTT, hematocrit, and platelet count. These tests provide baseline information on the client's blood clotting abilities and identify conditions that may cause heparin therapy to ...

Generic drugs - Answer drugs sold by their generic name; not brand (or trade) name products Brand name - Answer name given to a drug by the pharmaceutical company that developed it; also called a trade name Genetic drugs vs Brand name - Answer Once the patent on a brand name runs out manufactures develop genetic drugs which are intended work on in the same way (quality, dosage, strength, and route of administration). The bioavailability of the generic drugs may differ fr...

What is the reason for the rapid effectiveness of nasal decongestants? - Answer They come into direct contact with nasal mucosa. Where does bumetanide act? - Answer Loop of Henle What is the time of onset for guaifenesin? - Answer 30 minutes What does the nurse expect will be prescribed for the client with bronchitis who needs help thinning sputum so their cough can be productive? - Answer Guaifenesin The nurse recognizes that additional instructions are needed wh...

Adverse effects of benzodiazepines in order adults - Answer increased sedation, dizziness, and hallucinations Patient education re: benzodiazepines - Answer IV bed rest for 3 hours + void before monitor renal + hepatic function Taper dose gradually Safety Precautions Antidote: Flumazenil (Romazicon) Tricyclics adverse effects - Answer CNS: Sleep disturbances, visual disturbances, concentration difficulty, ataxia, tremors GI: Dry mouth, N/V/D/C/A, cramps, increased sal...

How many ounces are in a tablespoon? - Answer 1/2 ounce How many tablespoons are in an ounce? - Answer 2 tablespoons How many drops are in 1 mL - Answer 20 gtt How many mL are in an ounce? - Answer 30 mL How many drops are in an ounce? - Answer 600 gtt What is the antidote for Haloperidol? - Answer There is no direct antidote, so treatment includes emesis or gastric lavage followed by activated charcoal. What should you teach a patient about halope...