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Which of the following would be considered a safe practice while in the microbiology lab? - Answer Leaving the lab after wiping down the bench top with disinfectants and washing your hands Microscopically you observe single bacillus that form white colonies on nutrient agar: Genus species? - Answer Escherichia coli Microscopically you observe tetrads that form yellow colonies on nutrient agar. Genus species? - Answer Micrococcus luteus Introduction of unwanted microorganisms - ...

Extremophiles grow under what conditions? - Answer They grow under extreme conditions of pH, temperature, pressure, etc. Microbes are classified according to what? - Answer Their preferred growth environment What are the three cardinal temperatures? - Answer Minimum, Optimum, and Maximum Enzyme activity, membrane fluidity, DNA stability, etc are all influenced by what? - Answer Temperature Psychrophiles temperature range is? - Answer Low, <15 degrees C = optimum ...

Noncellular "entities" that some regard as straddling the border between life and nonlife: a) Viruses b) Bacteria c) Yeasts d) Algae - Answer a) Viruses Yeasts and molds belong to a group of microorganisms known as the: a) Protozoa b) Helminths c) Fungi d) Prokaryotes - Answer c) Fungi Microorganisms that produce diseases are said to be: a) Avirulent b) Ubiquitous c) Aerotolerant d) Pathogenic - Answer d) Pathogenic Molds from visible masses called _______, which a...

Centrifugation - Answer Quantifying bacteria by mass. Separates components by density using high speed spinning. Volume or dry weight of the pellet is proportional to the number of cells per unit volume in the original suspension Turbidity - Answer Quantifying bacteria with a spectrophotometer. Absorbance is roughly equal to cell density. More turbidity means more cell density. Direct microscopic counts - Answer Quantifying bacteria by amount. Counting the number of cells within g...

What are the common traits of Streptococcus and Enterococcus? - Answer Gram positive cocci, they do not produce endospores, they are aerotolerant, and strepcoccus are arranged in long chains, negative response to catalase What does the catalase assay detect? - Answer It detects the presence of the enzyme catalase, which is an important oxygen detoxifying enzyme. What does catalase do and what classifications of species need it? - Answer It eliminates reactive hydrogen peroxide, a ...

methods for counting bacteria - Answer centrifugation turbidity direct microscopic count most probable number quantitative plate count centrifugation - Answer suspended cells are spun down into a pellet. dry weight of the pellet is proportional to number of cells per unit volume of original suspension turbidity - Answer uses a spectrophotometer to measure the cloudiness of a suspension of cells. cells deflect, refract, and absorb light, so a greater absorbance reading = gre...

Exp 1- Resolution - Answer The ability to see objects that are close together as separate objects - light waves only resolve things 0.2 micrometers and larger Exp 1- Magnification - Answer The enlargement of specimen when it is seen through the microscope Exp 1- Magnification formula - Answer Magnification = (eyepiece) x (objective lense) Exp 1- Microscope: Use of Oil - Answer ONLY USED WITH 100X LENS Decreases light refeaction Exp 1- Microscope: Working Distance - Answe...

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What factors have helped to decrease infant and maternal morbidity and mortality? - Answer -Improved health of general population -Improved sanitation -Medical knowledge advances -Better and more widespread prenatal care What are the leading causes of maternal morbidity and mortality? - Answer -Hemorrhage -Infection (puerperal or postpartum) -Hypertensive disease -Embolism What are the leading causes of infant morbidity and mortality? - Answer -Congenital malformations (20%)...

Certified Nurse Midwife (4) - Answer 1. Delivers babies 2. Perinatal care 3. Assist with C section 4. Prescribe birth control Nurse Practitioner (4) - Answer 1. Cannot deliver babies 2. Perinatal care 3. Assist with C section 4. Prescribe birth control Clinical Nurse Specialist (3) - Answer 1. Analyzes what works and what doesn't work on the unit 2. Doesn't deliver 3. Doesn't prescribe Birth rate - Answer Number of live births/1000 population Infant morta...

The nurse is scheduling a client for an external cephalic version (ECV). Which finding in the clients chart requires immediate intervention? 1. Previous birth by cesarean 2. Frank breech ballotable 3. 37 weeks, complete breech 4. Failed ECV last week - Answer 1 A woman is scheduled to have an external version for a breech presentation. The nurse carefully reviews the clients chart for contraindications to this procedure, including which of the following? Note: Credit will be...

Neonatal period - Answer birth to 28 days of life Infant period - Answer 1-12 months Toddler period - Answer 1-3 years Preschool period - Answer 3-6 years School age period - Answer 6-12 years Adolescence period - Answer 13-18 years How much does the physical birth weight increases by 4 months? - Answer Double How much does the physical birth weight increases by 1 year? - Answer Triple Newborn respiratory rate - Answer 30-60 bpm Infant respir...

1) Contractions 2) Fetal <3 rate 3) Fetal Descent 4) Cervical dilation 5) Intake and output - Answer Things to evaluate regularly for a patient in labor (5) 1cm/hour - Answer The goal of cervical dilation in active labor Dystocia - Answer Abnormal or difficult labor in which progress of labor deviates from normal. Dystocia - Answer The primary reason for cesarean sections, characterized by a slow, abnormal progression of labor. active phase (4cm) - Answer Which ...

1. Nursing process can be defined as the A. Implementation of nursing care by the nurse B. Steps the nurse employs to provide nursing care C. Process the nurse uses to determine nursing goals D. Activities a nurse employs to identify a nursing problem - Answer B 2. To utilize the nursing process, the nurse must first: A. Identify goals for nursing care B. State the client's nursing needs C. Obtain information about the client D. Evaluate the effectiveness of nursing ...

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Which of the following is implied by the term "abnormality"? - Answer Dangerousness, maladaptive Ness, suffering According to the DSM-5, a mental disorder is defined as a syndrome that is present in an individual and that involves: - Answer Clinically significant disturbances in behavior, emotional regulation, or cognitive dysfunction Ing Why do we need to classify mental disorders? - Answer Classification systems provide us with a naming system and enable us to structure in...

Pre-scientific psychology - Answer Ancient world views (ends at 500 BCE): supernatural forces, demonic or spiritual possession, punishment for transgressions. Classical world (begins at 500 BCE): rejection of supernatural forces (classical Greeks), imbalance of bodily fluids (Hippocrates, Galen). Middle age views (Europe 5-16th centuries): supernatural forces invoked again, visionaries inspired by God's will, possessed by the devil. Hippocrates' Early Medical Concepts - Answer ...

Despite popular misconceptions, most people with psychological problems are not: - Answer dangerous. Lady Gaga and other eccentrics are usually not considered to be experiencing a mental illness because: - Answer they freely choose and enjoy their behavior. Which development was part of the legacy of Dorothea Dix? - Answer State mental hospitals Acquiring insight about unconscious psychological processes is a feature of: - Answer psychoanalysis. A medical researcher devel...

serotonin; norepinephrine - Answer Depression has been linked to low activity of the neurotransmitters __________ and __________. - dopamine; endorphin - GABA; histamine - serotonin; norepinephrine - glycine; glutamate placebo - Answer A "fake" pill used as the control condition in a drug study is a: - placebo. - confound. - random variable. - dependent variable- confounds - Answer Factors other than the independent variable may also act on the dependent variable. If...

anxiety - Answer an apprehension over an anticipated problem; tends to be about a future threat, often accompanied by mild autonomic arousal fear - Answer a reaction to immediate danger; tends to be about a threat that is happening now; an emotional response to immediate danger sympathetic arousal - Answer response that occurs in both fear and anxiety. anxiety involves moderate arousal and fear involves higher arousal. Anxiety and fear are both adaptive responses. fear is fundamen...