Medical Interventions EOC Exam Review –
PLTW | Latest Update 2026 | Graded A+
What is the difference between gram (+) bacteria and gram (-) bacteria? - correct
answerGram (+) bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan wall and a cell membrane. Gram (-
) bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan wall, a cell membrane, and are covered with
lipopolysaccharides and proteins.
What does a BLAST analysis do? - correct answerBLAST compares the DNA
sequences input into it to its large database
What does the ELISA test do and what does it stand for? - correct answerELISA-
Enzyme-linked-immunosorbant-assay
This is a test that takes advantage of some of the body's natural immune responses to
identify the presence of illness.
What is an antigen? - correct answerAn antigen is really a type of protein found on the
outside of every living cell (and virus!). Antigens are surface markers that cells use to
identify each other. It's how your body knows that your body cells are truly yours, and
they are how your body identifies cells and viruses that aren't yours.
What is an antibody? - correct answerThe job of antibodies is to attach to foreign
antigens. By attaching, those foreign antigens are neutralized. That attachment also
signals other types of leukocytes (T lymphocytes) to come in and destroy whatever the
antibody is attached to. So, antibodies attach to antigens. That is the principle behind an
ELISA.
What are the symptoms of meningitis? - correct answerFever; stiff neck; severe
headache; vomiting or nausea with headache; confusion or difficulty concentrating;
sensitivity to light; seizures; fatigue/difficulty waking up; loss of appetite; skin rashes (in
some cases)
What are β-Lactam Antibiotics and what is an example? - correct answerIrreversibly
inhibit enzymes involved in the final steps of cell wall synthesis. The enzymes inhibited
by these drugs mediate the formation of the peptide bridges between adjacent strands
of peptidoglycan. These drugs vary in their spectrum of activity; some are more active
against Gram positive bacteria; whereas, others are more active against Gram negative
bacteria; example, Penicillin
What are tetracyclines and what is an example? - correct answerReversibly bind to the
30S ribosomal subunit, blocking the attachment of tRNA to the ribosome and preventing
the continuation of protein synthesis. They are effective against certain Gram positive
and Gram negative bacteria; example, Doxycycline
,What are sulfonamides and what is an example? - correct answerInhibit the growth of
many Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria. They are structurally similar to
paraminobenzoic acid (PABA), a substrate in the pathway for folic acid biosynthesis.
Because of this similarity, the enzyme that normally binds with PABA preferentially
binds with the sulfonamide drugs, resulting in its competitive inhibition. Human cells are
not affected by these drugs because they lack this enzyme; example, Sulfadiazine
What are fluoroquinolones and what is an example? - correct answerInhibit one or more
of a group of enzymes called topoisomerases, which maintain the supercoiling of the
chromosomal DNA within the bacterial cells. The inhibition of these enzymes prevents
essential cell processes. The fluoroquinolones are active against a wide variety of
bacteria, including both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria; example,
Ciprofloxacin
Starting from the outer ear, trace the pathway of structures to the inner ear. - correct
answer1) Pinna (outer ear), 2) external auditory meatus, 3) tempanic membrane
(eardrum), 4) ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes), 4) tympanic cavity, 5) eustachian tube,
5) semicircular canals, 6) cochlea, 7) vestibular nerve, 8) facial nerve, 9) cochlear
nerve, 10) Internal auditory meatus
Does a higher frequency show a higher or lower pitch? - correct answerHigher pitch
Conductive vs. sensorineural hearing loss? - correct answerConductive hearing loss -
hearing loss of the outer ear; sensorineural hearing loss - hearing loss of the inner ear
What are the three steps of PCR? - correct answer1) Denaturation
2) Annealing
3) Exension
What is the difference between amniocentesis and chorionic villi sampling? - correct
answerAmniocentesis involves inserting a large needle through the abdomen and into
the uterus, where amniotic fluid (the fluid surrounding and protecting the baby) is
removed. This fluid contains cells shed from the baby: skin cells, cells from the lining of
the small intestine, or cells from the bladder. The cells in this fluid provide the DNA
needed to perform genetic testing. Chorionic villus sampling, on the other hand, can be
done earlier. Here, chorionic villus cells are removed from the placenta. This is done by
inserting a needle vaginally and directing that needle to the placenta. A small sample of
those cells - which are identical to the cells inside the baby - are removed and used for
testing.
What does an MRI scan stand for? CT scan? - correct answerMRI - Magnetic
Resonance Imaging
CT - Computed Tomography scan
What is the best method for being able to diagnose cancer? - correct answerBiopsy
,In a microarray, what does the green color stand for? The yellow? The red? - correct
answerGreen - genes are being expressed in normal cells but not in cancer cells
Yellow- both genes are being expressed in both cells
Red - genes are being expressed in the cancer cells but not the healthy cells
DNA microarrays measure these differences by measuring the amount of _____ for
genes that is present in a cell sample - correct answermRNA (messenger Ribonucleic
acid)
In depth, what do tumor suppressor genes do? - correct answerTumor suppressors,
such as the p53 gene, are used to control cells. When a cell does not function properly,
or is in the wrong stage of the cell cycle, the gene will signal those cells to undergo
apoptosis to keep them from spreading their non-functioning genes. If a tumor
suppressor gene is turned off, then those non-functioning cells will continue to spread,
which leads to a tumor formation which can be malignant.
What are proto-oncogenes? - correct answerProto-oncogenes are a group of genes that
cause normal cells to become cancerous when they are mutated.
What are the mutated versions of proto-oncogenes called? - correct answerOncogenes
What does an SNP stand for? - correct answerSingle nucleotide polymorphism
Amniocentesis - correct answera procedure used in fetal diagnosis in which fetal cells
are removed from the amniotic fluid
anneal - correct answerThe pairing of strands of DNA through hydrogen bonding.
Carrier Screening - correct answerTesting a person for a specific gene
Chorionic villus Sampling (CVS) - correct answera test used to find genetic defects that
involves taking samples of hairlike material that surrounds the enbryo
gene - correct answerA segment of DNA on a chromosome that codes for a specific trait
genetic testing - correct answerthe use of tests to diagnose or predict the presence of or
susceptibility to genetic conditions in individuals considered to be at high risk for a
particular disorder, based on clinical symptoms, family history, or a positive genetic
screen
genotype - correct answergenetic makeup of an organism
karyotype - correct answerA picture of all the chromosomes in a cell arranged in pairs
newborn screening - correct answertests performed to help early detection of disease,
especially genetic disorders, at birth
, phenotype - correct answerphysical characteristics of an organism
PCR - correct answertechnique that makes many copies of a certain segment of DNA
without using living cells
Preimplantation Genetic Diagnosis - correct answeris a technique used to identify
genetic defects in embryos created through in vitro fertilization (IVF) before transferring
them into the uterus
primer - correct answera short segment of DNA that serves as the starting point for DNA
synthesis
restriction enzyme - correct answerenzyme that cuts dna at a specific sequence of
nucleotides.
single nucleotide polymorphism - correct answerthe differences in homologous DNA
sequences that are reflected in different lengths of restriction fragments produced when
the DNA is cut up by a restriction enzyme
supernatant - correct answerthe liquid material left above the pellet after centrifugation
TAQ polymerase - correct answerheat resistant enzyme that extends primers from 5' to
3' ends in PCR
Thermal cycler - correct answeran instrument used to complete PCR reactions;
automatically cycles through different temperatures
ultrasonography - correct answerusing the reflections of high-frequency sound waves to
construct an image of a body organ (a sonogram)
cloning - correct answerUsing a somatic cell from a multicellular organism to make one
or more genetically identical individuals.
gene therapy - correct answera technique that places a gene into a cell to correct a
hereditary disease or to improve the genome
in vitro fertilization - correct answerThe most common assisted reproduction procedure,
in which a woman's eggs are mixed with sperm in culture dishes (in vitro) and then
carefully inserted into a woman's uterus.
vector - correct answerin biology, any agent, such as a plasmid or a virus, that can
incorporate foreign DNA and transfer that DNA from one organism to another; an
intermediate host that transfers a pathogen or a parasite to another organism
PLTW | Latest Update 2026 | Graded A+
What is the difference between gram (+) bacteria and gram (-) bacteria? - correct
answerGram (+) bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan wall and a cell membrane. Gram (-
) bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan wall, a cell membrane, and are covered with
lipopolysaccharides and proteins.
What does a BLAST analysis do? - correct answerBLAST compares the DNA
sequences input into it to its large database
What does the ELISA test do and what does it stand for? - correct answerELISA-
Enzyme-linked-immunosorbant-assay
This is a test that takes advantage of some of the body's natural immune responses to
identify the presence of illness.
What is an antigen? - correct answerAn antigen is really a type of protein found on the
outside of every living cell (and virus!). Antigens are surface markers that cells use to
identify each other. It's how your body knows that your body cells are truly yours, and
they are how your body identifies cells and viruses that aren't yours.
What is an antibody? - correct answerThe job of antibodies is to attach to foreign
antigens. By attaching, those foreign antigens are neutralized. That attachment also
signals other types of leukocytes (T lymphocytes) to come in and destroy whatever the
antibody is attached to. So, antibodies attach to antigens. That is the principle behind an
ELISA.
What are the symptoms of meningitis? - correct answerFever; stiff neck; severe
headache; vomiting or nausea with headache; confusion or difficulty concentrating;
sensitivity to light; seizures; fatigue/difficulty waking up; loss of appetite; skin rashes (in
some cases)
What are β-Lactam Antibiotics and what is an example? - correct answerIrreversibly
inhibit enzymes involved in the final steps of cell wall synthesis. The enzymes inhibited
by these drugs mediate the formation of the peptide bridges between adjacent strands
of peptidoglycan. These drugs vary in their spectrum of activity; some are more active
against Gram positive bacteria; whereas, others are more active against Gram negative
bacteria; example, Penicillin
What are tetracyclines and what is an example? - correct answerReversibly bind to the
30S ribosomal subunit, blocking the attachment of tRNA to the ribosome and preventing
the continuation of protein synthesis. They are effective against certain Gram positive
and Gram negative bacteria; example, Doxycycline
,What are sulfonamides and what is an example? - correct answerInhibit the growth of
many Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria. They are structurally similar to
paraminobenzoic acid (PABA), a substrate in the pathway for folic acid biosynthesis.
Because of this similarity, the enzyme that normally binds with PABA preferentially
binds with the sulfonamide drugs, resulting in its competitive inhibition. Human cells are
not affected by these drugs because they lack this enzyme; example, Sulfadiazine
What are fluoroquinolones and what is an example? - correct answerInhibit one or more
of a group of enzymes called topoisomerases, which maintain the supercoiling of the
chromosomal DNA within the bacterial cells. The inhibition of these enzymes prevents
essential cell processes. The fluoroquinolones are active against a wide variety of
bacteria, including both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria; example,
Ciprofloxacin
Starting from the outer ear, trace the pathway of structures to the inner ear. - correct
answer1) Pinna (outer ear), 2) external auditory meatus, 3) tempanic membrane
(eardrum), 4) ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes), 4) tympanic cavity, 5) eustachian tube,
5) semicircular canals, 6) cochlea, 7) vestibular nerve, 8) facial nerve, 9) cochlear
nerve, 10) Internal auditory meatus
Does a higher frequency show a higher or lower pitch? - correct answerHigher pitch
Conductive vs. sensorineural hearing loss? - correct answerConductive hearing loss -
hearing loss of the outer ear; sensorineural hearing loss - hearing loss of the inner ear
What are the three steps of PCR? - correct answer1) Denaturation
2) Annealing
3) Exension
What is the difference between amniocentesis and chorionic villi sampling? - correct
answerAmniocentesis involves inserting a large needle through the abdomen and into
the uterus, where amniotic fluid (the fluid surrounding and protecting the baby) is
removed. This fluid contains cells shed from the baby: skin cells, cells from the lining of
the small intestine, or cells from the bladder. The cells in this fluid provide the DNA
needed to perform genetic testing. Chorionic villus sampling, on the other hand, can be
done earlier. Here, chorionic villus cells are removed from the placenta. This is done by
inserting a needle vaginally and directing that needle to the placenta. A small sample of
those cells - which are identical to the cells inside the baby - are removed and used for
testing.
What does an MRI scan stand for? CT scan? - correct answerMRI - Magnetic
Resonance Imaging
CT - Computed Tomography scan
What is the best method for being able to diagnose cancer? - correct answerBiopsy
,In a microarray, what does the green color stand for? The yellow? The red? - correct
answerGreen - genes are being expressed in normal cells but not in cancer cells
Yellow- both genes are being expressed in both cells
Red - genes are being expressed in the cancer cells but not the healthy cells
DNA microarrays measure these differences by measuring the amount of _____ for
genes that is present in a cell sample - correct answermRNA (messenger Ribonucleic
acid)
In depth, what do tumor suppressor genes do? - correct answerTumor suppressors,
such as the p53 gene, are used to control cells. When a cell does not function properly,
or is in the wrong stage of the cell cycle, the gene will signal those cells to undergo
apoptosis to keep them from spreading their non-functioning genes. If a tumor
suppressor gene is turned off, then those non-functioning cells will continue to spread,
which leads to a tumor formation which can be malignant.
What are proto-oncogenes? - correct answerProto-oncogenes are a group of genes that
cause normal cells to become cancerous when they are mutated.
What are the mutated versions of proto-oncogenes called? - correct answerOncogenes
What does an SNP stand for? - correct answerSingle nucleotide polymorphism
Amniocentesis - correct answera procedure used in fetal diagnosis in which fetal cells
are removed from the amniotic fluid
anneal - correct answerThe pairing of strands of DNA through hydrogen bonding.
Carrier Screening - correct answerTesting a person for a specific gene
Chorionic villus Sampling (CVS) - correct answera test used to find genetic defects that
involves taking samples of hairlike material that surrounds the enbryo
gene - correct answerA segment of DNA on a chromosome that codes for a specific trait
genetic testing - correct answerthe use of tests to diagnose or predict the presence of or
susceptibility to genetic conditions in individuals considered to be at high risk for a
particular disorder, based on clinical symptoms, family history, or a positive genetic
screen
genotype - correct answergenetic makeup of an organism
karyotype - correct answerA picture of all the chromosomes in a cell arranged in pairs
newborn screening - correct answertests performed to help early detection of disease,
especially genetic disorders, at birth
, phenotype - correct answerphysical characteristics of an organism
PCR - correct answertechnique that makes many copies of a certain segment of DNA
without using living cells
Preimplantation Genetic Diagnosis - correct answeris a technique used to identify
genetic defects in embryos created through in vitro fertilization (IVF) before transferring
them into the uterus
primer - correct answera short segment of DNA that serves as the starting point for DNA
synthesis
restriction enzyme - correct answerenzyme that cuts dna at a specific sequence of
nucleotides.
single nucleotide polymorphism - correct answerthe differences in homologous DNA
sequences that are reflected in different lengths of restriction fragments produced when
the DNA is cut up by a restriction enzyme
supernatant - correct answerthe liquid material left above the pellet after centrifugation
TAQ polymerase - correct answerheat resistant enzyme that extends primers from 5' to
3' ends in PCR
Thermal cycler - correct answeran instrument used to complete PCR reactions;
automatically cycles through different temperatures
ultrasonography - correct answerusing the reflections of high-frequency sound waves to
construct an image of a body organ (a sonogram)
cloning - correct answerUsing a somatic cell from a multicellular organism to make one
or more genetically identical individuals.
gene therapy - correct answera technique that places a gene into a cell to correct a
hereditary disease or to improve the genome
in vitro fertilization - correct answerThe most common assisted reproduction procedure,
in which a woman's eggs are mixed with sperm in culture dishes (in vitro) and then
carefully inserted into a woman's uterus.
vector - correct answerin biology, any agent, such as a plasmid or a virus, that can
incorporate foreign DNA and transfer that DNA from one organism to another; an
intermediate host that transfers a pathogen or a parasite to another organism
