1
Portage Microbiology Final | Fully Verified
Exam Questions with Correct, Detailed
Solutions | Updated 2025
1. The Beta-oxidation pathway catabolizes the fatty acid chains of lipids. True
or False - ANSWER True
2. The process of photophosphorylation produces which of the following. -
ANSWER ATP and NADPH
3. What is one of the main functions of light reactions? - ANSWER To
generate a proton concentration gradient to generate ATP
4. In phosphorylation, the light reactions always occur where? - ANSWER
membrane
5. The Calvin cycle must occur in the absence of light. True or False -
ANSWER False
6. Following the decolorization step of the gram stain, Gram negative bacteria
will appear colorless - ANSWER True
7. If you wish to study the motility of an organism you cannot heat fix, but you
can chemically fix the specimen. True or False - ANSWER False, Both
fixations will kill the specimen
8. Name one substance capable of chemically fixing cells to a slide -
ANSWER ethanol
9. You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining
technique that you could perform? Name at least one dye you would use
during this process. - ANSWER Simple Stain and I would use crystal violet
10.You suspect a patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained, it is
sent off to the lab for an acid-fast stain. If the patient were infected with TB,
describe what you would expect to see on the stained side. - ANSWER You
would expect to see red cells on a blue background.
, 2
11.If a patient is suspected of having malaria, a Giemsa stain would be an
appropriate differential test to perform. A Giemsa stain can be used to
determine the presence of pathogenic bacteria. - ANSWER True
12.Identify what type of electron microscope was used to capture the following
image and explain your choice. - ANSWER A Transmission Electron
Microscope was used because we can see the subcellular substructures at 20
nm, 2D image of the internal structures.
13.Identify what type of electron microscope was used to capture the following
image and explain your choice (B). - ANSWER Scanning electron
microscope and we can tell based on the trademark shell that is shown in the
20 nm image.
14.The purpose of quadrant streak is to produce individual colonies of a
bacterial population. True or False - ANSWER True
15.A dilution gradient is formed when carrying out what generalized plating
strategy. - ANSWER Quadrant streak.
16.In what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the lowest
concentration of bacteria, p2 or p4? - ANSWER P4 is lowest conc. p2 is
highest
17.True or False. Chlyamida is an obligate parasite and as such can be grown
on agar plates alone. - ANSWER False
18.When performing a dilution streak a new loop must be used for each phase. -
ANSWER True, a new loop IS required
19.In order to encourage growth of a slow growing microbe what might a
researcher do during a phase dilution streak> - ANSWER A research may
either opt to perform a 3 phase dilution streak or pass the loop through the
previous phase multiple times.
20.A loop can pass through a previous phase multiple times if: - ANSWER The
gradient has the growth of individual colonies.
, 3
21.To restrict the growth of a pathogenic microbe a researcher might decrease
an incubator from 37ºC to 25ºC. - ANSWER True
22.There has been an outbreak of Staph Aureus within a local cleaning
business. The employer Is trying to determine which of two companies has
not been using sterile precautions when cleaning. To help determine who is
responsible for unsanitary practices, a researcher streaks the isolated
bacterial samples from each company onto MSA agar. After incubating the
samples overnight at 37°C., briefly explain how he will interpret the result of
his samples. - ANSWER A sample showing only colorless colonies growing
on red agar would indicate the presence of non-pathogenic bacteria, while a
sample showing a distinct yellow agar would indicate the presence of Staph
aureus.
23.True or False: The metabolism of a lipid-derived carbon atom will yield
more ATP than a molecule of glucose. - ANSWER True
24.True or false : if false, make true
polysaccharides are too large to directly pass through the plasma membrane
- ANSWER Polysaccharides are easily transported directly across the
plasma membrane
25.Giemsa staining is used to detect each of the following, except:
- Neisseria Gonorrhea
- Histoplasma
- Chlamydia trachomatis
- Malaria - ANSWER Neisseria Gonorrhea
26.What STD is caused by Gram-negative, diplococci, fastidious bacteria that
may result in cardiac and neurological complications? - ANSWER
Gonorrhea
27.What STD is caused by Gram-negative, non-motile, rod-shaped bacteria can
cause infertility and pelvic inflammatory disease? - ANSWER Chlamydia
28.Which of the following are considered Protista? Select all that apply. -
ANSWER Amoeba and Algae
29.A defining characteristic of Protista is the inability of colonies to form tissue
layers. True or False. - ANSWER True
, 4
30.The function of the ribosome is: - ANSWER protein synthesis
31.True or False: The distinguishing characteristic of Gram-Negative bacteria is
the presence of LPS in the outer membrane - ANSWER True
32.Identify the following cellular components by matching the number with the
description. - ANSWER 1. F Nucleus
2. B Lysosome
3. E Plasma membrane
4. G Golgi apparatus
5. D Rough endoplasmic reticulum
33.The combination of the cell membrane and the outer membrane is referred to
as the (select all that apply) - ANSWER Cell envelope.
34.Cell walls are found in which of the following: - ANSWER Algae, Bacteria,
Plants, and Fungi
35.function of mitochondria - ANSWER To produce energy
36.The function of the Golgi is (select all that apply) - ANSWER protein
modification and distribution
37.All multicellular microorganisms classified as Animalia are autotropic. True
or False. - ANSWER False, they are heterotrophic
38.What is the primary byproduct of the TCA cycle? Select all that apply. -
ANSWER FADH2 and NADH
39.In the absence of glucose, which of the following cannot be used as
alternative energy sources? - ANSWER Nucleic acids
40.How many ATP does the TCA cycle produce per pyruvate. - ANSWER 1
ATP per pyruvate
41.In the absence of glucose, which of the following can be used as alternative
energy sources? - ANSWER Lactose, Carbohydrates, and lipids
Portage Microbiology Final | Fully Verified
Exam Questions with Correct, Detailed
Solutions | Updated 2025
1. The Beta-oxidation pathway catabolizes the fatty acid chains of lipids. True
or False - ANSWER True
2. The process of photophosphorylation produces which of the following. -
ANSWER ATP and NADPH
3. What is one of the main functions of light reactions? - ANSWER To
generate a proton concentration gradient to generate ATP
4. In phosphorylation, the light reactions always occur where? - ANSWER
membrane
5. The Calvin cycle must occur in the absence of light. True or False -
ANSWER False
6. Following the decolorization step of the gram stain, Gram negative bacteria
will appear colorless - ANSWER True
7. If you wish to study the motility of an organism you cannot heat fix, but you
can chemically fix the specimen. True or False - ANSWER False, Both
fixations will kill the specimen
8. Name one substance capable of chemically fixing cells to a slide -
ANSWER ethanol
9. You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining
technique that you could perform? Name at least one dye you would use
during this process. - ANSWER Simple Stain and I would use crystal violet
10.You suspect a patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained, it is
sent off to the lab for an acid-fast stain. If the patient were infected with TB,
describe what you would expect to see on the stained side. - ANSWER You
would expect to see red cells on a blue background.
, 2
11.If a patient is suspected of having malaria, a Giemsa stain would be an
appropriate differential test to perform. A Giemsa stain can be used to
determine the presence of pathogenic bacteria. - ANSWER True
12.Identify what type of electron microscope was used to capture the following
image and explain your choice. - ANSWER A Transmission Electron
Microscope was used because we can see the subcellular substructures at 20
nm, 2D image of the internal structures.
13.Identify what type of electron microscope was used to capture the following
image and explain your choice (B). - ANSWER Scanning electron
microscope and we can tell based on the trademark shell that is shown in the
20 nm image.
14.The purpose of quadrant streak is to produce individual colonies of a
bacterial population. True or False - ANSWER True
15.A dilution gradient is formed when carrying out what generalized plating
strategy. - ANSWER Quadrant streak.
16.In what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the lowest
concentration of bacteria, p2 or p4? - ANSWER P4 is lowest conc. p2 is
highest
17.True or False. Chlyamida is an obligate parasite and as such can be grown
on agar plates alone. - ANSWER False
18.When performing a dilution streak a new loop must be used for each phase. -
ANSWER True, a new loop IS required
19.In order to encourage growth of a slow growing microbe what might a
researcher do during a phase dilution streak> - ANSWER A research may
either opt to perform a 3 phase dilution streak or pass the loop through the
previous phase multiple times.
20.A loop can pass through a previous phase multiple times if: - ANSWER The
gradient has the growth of individual colonies.
, 3
21.To restrict the growth of a pathogenic microbe a researcher might decrease
an incubator from 37ºC to 25ºC. - ANSWER True
22.There has been an outbreak of Staph Aureus within a local cleaning
business. The employer Is trying to determine which of two companies has
not been using sterile precautions when cleaning. To help determine who is
responsible for unsanitary practices, a researcher streaks the isolated
bacterial samples from each company onto MSA agar. After incubating the
samples overnight at 37°C., briefly explain how he will interpret the result of
his samples. - ANSWER A sample showing only colorless colonies growing
on red agar would indicate the presence of non-pathogenic bacteria, while a
sample showing a distinct yellow agar would indicate the presence of Staph
aureus.
23.True or False: The metabolism of a lipid-derived carbon atom will yield
more ATP than a molecule of glucose. - ANSWER True
24.True or false : if false, make true
polysaccharides are too large to directly pass through the plasma membrane
- ANSWER Polysaccharides are easily transported directly across the
plasma membrane
25.Giemsa staining is used to detect each of the following, except:
- Neisseria Gonorrhea
- Histoplasma
- Chlamydia trachomatis
- Malaria - ANSWER Neisseria Gonorrhea
26.What STD is caused by Gram-negative, diplococci, fastidious bacteria that
may result in cardiac and neurological complications? - ANSWER
Gonorrhea
27.What STD is caused by Gram-negative, non-motile, rod-shaped bacteria can
cause infertility and pelvic inflammatory disease? - ANSWER Chlamydia
28.Which of the following are considered Protista? Select all that apply. -
ANSWER Amoeba and Algae
29.A defining characteristic of Protista is the inability of colonies to form tissue
layers. True or False. - ANSWER True
, 4
30.The function of the ribosome is: - ANSWER protein synthesis
31.True or False: The distinguishing characteristic of Gram-Negative bacteria is
the presence of LPS in the outer membrane - ANSWER True
32.Identify the following cellular components by matching the number with the
description. - ANSWER 1. F Nucleus
2. B Lysosome
3. E Plasma membrane
4. G Golgi apparatus
5. D Rough endoplasmic reticulum
33.The combination of the cell membrane and the outer membrane is referred to
as the (select all that apply) - ANSWER Cell envelope.
34.Cell walls are found in which of the following: - ANSWER Algae, Bacteria,
Plants, and Fungi
35.function of mitochondria - ANSWER To produce energy
36.The function of the Golgi is (select all that apply) - ANSWER protein
modification and distribution
37.All multicellular microorganisms classified as Animalia are autotropic. True
or False. - ANSWER False, they are heterotrophic
38.What is the primary byproduct of the TCA cycle? Select all that apply. -
ANSWER FADH2 and NADH
39.In the absence of glucose, which of the following cannot be used as
alternative energy sources? - ANSWER Nucleic acids
40.How many ATP does the TCA cycle produce per pyruvate. - ANSWER 1
ATP per pyruvate
41.In the absence of glucose, which of the following can be used as alternative
energy sources? - ANSWER Lactose, Carbohydrates, and lipids
