HESI Exit RN EXIT EXAM
HESI Exit RN EXIT EXAM 3 Version 4 Complete
160 Recent Questions and Correct Verified
Answers/ RN Hesi Exit Exam V4 for the RN
Hesi Exit Prep (New!)
Which intervention should be included in the plan of care for a client admitted to the hospital
with ulcerative colitis?
A.Administer stool softeners.
B.Place the client on fluid restriction.
C.Provide a low-residue diet.
D.Add a milk product to each meal. –
Correct Answer :C
Rationale:
A+ TEST BANK 1
, HESI Exit RN EXIT EXAM
A low-residue diet (C) will help decrease symptoms of diarrhea, which are clinical manifestations
of ulcerative colitis. (A, B, and D) are contraindicated and could worsen the condition.
The nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis who is on a continuous IV heparin
infusion. The activated partial prothrombin time (aPTT) is 120 seconds. Which action should the
nurse take?
A.Increase the rate of the heparin infusion using a nomogram.
B.Decrease the heparin infusion rate and give vitamin K IM.
C.Continue the heparin infusion at the current prescribed rate.
D.Stop the heparin drip and prepare to administer protamine sulfate. –
Correct Answer :D
Rationale:
An aPTT more than 100 seconds is a critically high value; therefore, the heparin should be
stopped. The antidote for heparin is protamine sulfate (D). Increasing the rate would increase
the risk for hemorrhage (A). The infusion should be stopped, and vitamin K is the antidote for
warfarin (Coumadin) (B). Keeping the infusion at the current rate would increase the risk for
hemorrhage (C).
While assessing a client with recurring chest pain, the unit secretary notifies the nurse that the
client's health care provider is on the telephone. What action should the nurse instruct the unit
secretary to implement?
A.Transfer the call into the room of the client.
B.Instruct the secretary to explain reason for the call.
C.Ask another nurse to take the phone call.
D.Ask the health care provider to see the client on the unit. –
Correct Answer :C
Rationale:
A+ TEST BANK 2
, HESI Exit RN EXIT EXAM
Another nurse should be asked to take the phone call (C), which allows the nurse to stay at the
bedside to complete the assessment of the client's chest pain. (A and B) should not be done
during an acute change in the client's condition. Requesting the health care provider (D) to come
to the unit is premature until the nurse completes assessment of the client's status.
Which instruction(s) should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan of a male client who
has had a myocardial infarction and who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin (NTG)? (Select
all that apply.)
A.Keep the medication in your pocket so that it can be accessed quickly.
B.Call 911 if chest pain is not relieved after one nitroglycerin.
C.Store the medication in its original container and protect it from light.
D.Activate the emergency medical system after three doses of medication.
E.Do not use within 1 hour of taking sildenafil citrate (Viagra). –
Correct Answer :B,C
Rationale:
Emergency action should be taken if chest pain is not relieved after one nitroglycerin tablet (B).
The medication should be kept in the original container to protect from light (C). Keeping the
medication in the shirt pocket provides an environment that is too warm (A). The newest
guidelines recommend calling 911 after one nitroglycerin tablet if chest pain is not relieved (D).
Nitroglycerin and other nitrates should never be taken with Viagra (E).
The nurse prepares to administer 3 units of regular insulin and 20 units of NPH insulin
subcutaneously to a client with an elevated blood glucose level. Which procedure is correct?
A.Using one syringe, first insert air into the regular vial and then insert air into the NPH vial.
B.Using one syringe, add the regular insulin into the syringe and then add the NPH insulin.
C.Avoid combining the two insulins because incompatibility could cause an adverse reaction.
D.Administer the regular insulin subcutaneously and then give the NPH IV to prevent a separate
stick. –
A+ TEST BANK 3
, HESI Exit RN EXIT EXAM
Correct Answer :B
Rationale:
The regular or "clear" insulin should be withdrawn into the syringe first, followed by the NPH (B).
Air should first be injected into the NPH vial and then air should be inserted into the regular vial
(A). NPH and regular insulin are compatible, and combining will reduce the number of injections
(C). The insulin is ordered subcutaneously and NPH cannot be given IV (D).
An 8-year-old child is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) for congestive heart failure (CHF). In assessing
the child, the nurse finds that her apical heart rate is 80 beats/min, she complains of being
slightly nauseated, and her serum digoxin level is 1.2 ng/mL. What action should the nurse take?
A.Because the child's heart rate and digoxin level are within normal range, assess for the cause
of the nausea.
B.Hold the next dose of digoxin until the health care provider can be notified because the serum
digoxin level is elevated.
C.Administer the next dose of digoxin and notify the health care provider that the child is
showing signs of toxicity.
D.Notify the health care provider that the child's pulse rate is below normal for her age group. –
Correct Answer :A
Rationale:
Nausea and vomiting are early signs of digoxin toxicity. However, the normal resting heart rate
for a child 8 to 10 years of age is 70 to 110 beats/min and the therapeutic range of serum digoxin
levels is 0.5 to 2 ng/mL. Based on the objective data, (A) is the best of the choices provided
because the serum digoxin level is within normal levels. (B) is not warranted by the data
presented. The digoxin level is within the therapeutic range and the child is not showing signs of
toxicity (C). The child's pulse rate is within normal range for her age group (D).
The nurse prepares to administer acetaminophen oral suspension to a child who weighs 66
pounds. The prescription reads: Administer 15 mg/kg every 6 hours by mouth. The Tylenol is
available 150 mg/5 ml. Which is the correct dosage indicated on the image?
A.30ml
A+ TEST BANK 4
HESI Exit RN EXIT EXAM 3 Version 4 Complete
160 Recent Questions and Correct Verified
Answers/ RN Hesi Exit Exam V4 for the RN
Hesi Exit Prep (New!)
Which intervention should be included in the plan of care for a client admitted to the hospital
with ulcerative colitis?
A.Administer stool softeners.
B.Place the client on fluid restriction.
C.Provide a low-residue diet.
D.Add a milk product to each meal. –
Correct Answer :C
Rationale:
A+ TEST BANK 1
, HESI Exit RN EXIT EXAM
A low-residue diet (C) will help decrease symptoms of diarrhea, which are clinical manifestations
of ulcerative colitis. (A, B, and D) are contraindicated and could worsen the condition.
The nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis who is on a continuous IV heparin
infusion. The activated partial prothrombin time (aPTT) is 120 seconds. Which action should the
nurse take?
A.Increase the rate of the heparin infusion using a nomogram.
B.Decrease the heparin infusion rate and give vitamin K IM.
C.Continue the heparin infusion at the current prescribed rate.
D.Stop the heparin drip and prepare to administer protamine sulfate. –
Correct Answer :D
Rationale:
An aPTT more than 100 seconds is a critically high value; therefore, the heparin should be
stopped. The antidote for heparin is protamine sulfate (D). Increasing the rate would increase
the risk for hemorrhage (A). The infusion should be stopped, and vitamin K is the antidote for
warfarin (Coumadin) (B). Keeping the infusion at the current rate would increase the risk for
hemorrhage (C).
While assessing a client with recurring chest pain, the unit secretary notifies the nurse that the
client's health care provider is on the telephone. What action should the nurse instruct the unit
secretary to implement?
A.Transfer the call into the room of the client.
B.Instruct the secretary to explain reason for the call.
C.Ask another nurse to take the phone call.
D.Ask the health care provider to see the client on the unit. –
Correct Answer :C
Rationale:
A+ TEST BANK 2
, HESI Exit RN EXIT EXAM
Another nurse should be asked to take the phone call (C), which allows the nurse to stay at the
bedside to complete the assessment of the client's chest pain. (A and B) should not be done
during an acute change in the client's condition. Requesting the health care provider (D) to come
to the unit is premature until the nurse completes assessment of the client's status.
Which instruction(s) should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan of a male client who
has had a myocardial infarction and who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin (NTG)? (Select
all that apply.)
A.Keep the medication in your pocket so that it can be accessed quickly.
B.Call 911 if chest pain is not relieved after one nitroglycerin.
C.Store the medication in its original container and protect it from light.
D.Activate the emergency medical system after three doses of medication.
E.Do not use within 1 hour of taking sildenafil citrate (Viagra). –
Correct Answer :B,C
Rationale:
Emergency action should be taken if chest pain is not relieved after one nitroglycerin tablet (B).
The medication should be kept in the original container to protect from light (C). Keeping the
medication in the shirt pocket provides an environment that is too warm (A). The newest
guidelines recommend calling 911 after one nitroglycerin tablet if chest pain is not relieved (D).
Nitroglycerin and other nitrates should never be taken with Viagra (E).
The nurse prepares to administer 3 units of regular insulin and 20 units of NPH insulin
subcutaneously to a client with an elevated blood glucose level. Which procedure is correct?
A.Using one syringe, first insert air into the regular vial and then insert air into the NPH vial.
B.Using one syringe, add the regular insulin into the syringe and then add the NPH insulin.
C.Avoid combining the two insulins because incompatibility could cause an adverse reaction.
D.Administer the regular insulin subcutaneously and then give the NPH IV to prevent a separate
stick. –
A+ TEST BANK 3
, HESI Exit RN EXIT EXAM
Correct Answer :B
Rationale:
The regular or "clear" insulin should be withdrawn into the syringe first, followed by the NPH (B).
Air should first be injected into the NPH vial and then air should be inserted into the regular vial
(A). NPH and regular insulin are compatible, and combining will reduce the number of injections
(C). The insulin is ordered subcutaneously and NPH cannot be given IV (D).
An 8-year-old child is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) for congestive heart failure (CHF). In assessing
the child, the nurse finds that her apical heart rate is 80 beats/min, she complains of being
slightly nauseated, and her serum digoxin level is 1.2 ng/mL. What action should the nurse take?
A.Because the child's heart rate and digoxin level are within normal range, assess for the cause
of the nausea.
B.Hold the next dose of digoxin until the health care provider can be notified because the serum
digoxin level is elevated.
C.Administer the next dose of digoxin and notify the health care provider that the child is
showing signs of toxicity.
D.Notify the health care provider that the child's pulse rate is below normal for her age group. –
Correct Answer :A
Rationale:
Nausea and vomiting are early signs of digoxin toxicity. However, the normal resting heart rate
for a child 8 to 10 years of age is 70 to 110 beats/min and the therapeutic range of serum digoxin
levels is 0.5 to 2 ng/mL. Based on the objective data, (A) is the best of the choices provided
because the serum digoxin level is within normal levels. (B) is not warranted by the data
presented. The digoxin level is within the therapeutic range and the child is not showing signs of
toxicity (C). The child's pulse rate is within normal range for her age group (D).
The nurse prepares to administer acetaminophen oral suspension to a child who weighs 66
pounds. The prescription reads: Administer 15 mg/kg every 6 hours by mouth. The Tylenol is
available 150 mg/5 ml. Which is the correct dosage indicated on the image?
A.30ml
A+ TEST BANK 4
