NRSG 2350 FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2026
COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED
PASS <LATEST VERSION>
NRSG 2350 Final Exam Study Guide: 100 Questions & Answers
1. The nurse is assessing a patient's pulse and notes it is irregular. What is the nurse's most
appropriate initial action?
A. Document the finding as the only action.
B. Auscultate the apical pulse for a full minute.
C. Check the pulse with a Doppler device.
D. Inform the patient they have an arrhythmia.
B. Auscultate the apical pulse for a full minute.
Rationale: An irregular pulse requires a full 60-second count at the apical site (over the heart's
apex) to determine the actual heart rate and the nature of the irregularity. This provides an
accurate assessment before documentation or intervention.
2. A patient with heart failure is experiencing shortness of breath. Which position should the
nurse assist the patient into to promote optimal gas exchange?
A. Supine
B. High-Fowler's
C. Trendelenburg
D. Prone
B. High-Fowler's
Rationale: High-Fowler's position (sitting nearly upright) allows for maximum chest expansion
and lung ventilation, reducing the work of breathing for patients with respiratory distress or
heart failure.
3. The "E" in the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) priority framework can stand for which
critical component?
A. Energy
B. Examination
C. Exposure
D. Elimination
C. Exposure
,Rationale: In trauma and emergency assessments, "Exposure" reminds the nurse to fully expose
the patient to perform a thorough head-to-toe assessment while preventing hypothermia.
4. When administering a subcutaneous injection, the nurse should use which size needle
typically?
A. 18-20 gauge
B. 21-25 gauge, 5/8 inch
C. 25-27 gauge, 1/2 to 5/8 inch
D. 16 gauge, 1.5 inch
B. 21-25 gauge, 5/8 inch
Rationale: Subcutaneous injections are administered into the fatty tissue below the skin. A 25-
gauge, 5/8-inch needle is common for medications like insulin or heparin, as it is short and small
enough to prevent accidental intramuscular injection.
5. A patient has a new order for a diuretic. Which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most
concerned about monitoring?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Many common diuretics (like furosemide) are potassium-wasting, meaning they
cause the kidneys to excrete excess potassium, leading to a risk of hypokalemia, which can
cause dangerous cardiac arrhythmias.
6. The nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube. To determine the correct length for
insertion, the nurse should measure from the:
A. Tip of the nose to the xiphoid process.
B. Corner of the mouth to the earlobe to the xiphoid process.
C. Tip of the nose to the earlobe to the umbilicus.
D. Chin to the sternal notch.
A. Tip of the nose to the xiphoid process.
Rationale: This is the standard measurement technique (NEX method) to ensure the tube is
long enough to reach from the nose, down the esophagus, and into the stomach.
7. Which vital sign is considered the least reliable indicator of acute pain?
A. Heart Rate
B. Blood Pressure
C. Respiratory Rate
D. Temperature
, D. Temperature
Rationale: Pain does not directly cause a change in body temperature. While other vital signs
like HR and BP may elevate with pain, they are also influenced by many other factors (anxiety,
activity), making self-report the gold standard.
8. A patient on bed rest is at risk for impaired skin integrity. Which intervention is most
effective for prevention?
A. Massaging reddened areas vigorously.
B. Repositioning the patient every 2 hours.
C. Using donut-shaped cushions.
D. Applying talcum powder to moist areas.
B. Repositioning the patient every 2 hours.
Rationale: Frequent repositioning is the cornerstone of pressure ulcer prevention as it relieves
prolonged pressure on bony prominences, which is the primary cause of tissue ischemia and
breakdown.
9. When communicating with a patient who has a hearing impairment, the nurse should:
A. Speak directly into the patient's ear.
B. Speak slowly and clearly in a low-pitched tone.
C. Raise their voice to a shout.
D. Use complex sentences to provide full context.
B. Speak slowly and clearly in a low-pitched tone.
Rationale: Many hearing impairments involve the loss of high-frequency sounds. A low-pitched,
clear voice is easier to hear. Shouting distorts sound and can be perceived as aggressive.
10. The nurse is assessing a patient's jugular venous pressure (JVP). What patient position is
required for an accurate assessment?
A. Supine with the head of the bed at 90 degrees.
B. Supine with the head of the bed at 30-45 degrees.
C. Left lateral recumbent.
D. High-Fowler's.
B. Supine with the head of the bed at 30-45 degrees.
Rationale: This position allows the internal jugular vein to be visible just above the clavicle
without being overly distended, which is necessary for an accurate assessment of central
venous pressure.
11. A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the nurse why they need to check their blood sugar.
The nurse's best response is based on the understanding that regular monitoring:
A. Cures the disease over time.
B. Prevents the need for insulin.
COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED
PASS <LATEST VERSION>
NRSG 2350 Final Exam Study Guide: 100 Questions & Answers
1. The nurse is assessing a patient's pulse and notes it is irregular. What is the nurse's most
appropriate initial action?
A. Document the finding as the only action.
B. Auscultate the apical pulse for a full minute.
C. Check the pulse with a Doppler device.
D. Inform the patient they have an arrhythmia.
B. Auscultate the apical pulse for a full minute.
Rationale: An irregular pulse requires a full 60-second count at the apical site (over the heart's
apex) to determine the actual heart rate and the nature of the irregularity. This provides an
accurate assessment before documentation or intervention.
2. A patient with heart failure is experiencing shortness of breath. Which position should the
nurse assist the patient into to promote optimal gas exchange?
A. Supine
B. High-Fowler's
C. Trendelenburg
D. Prone
B. High-Fowler's
Rationale: High-Fowler's position (sitting nearly upright) allows for maximum chest expansion
and lung ventilation, reducing the work of breathing for patients with respiratory distress or
heart failure.
3. The "E" in the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) priority framework can stand for which
critical component?
A. Energy
B. Examination
C. Exposure
D. Elimination
C. Exposure
,Rationale: In trauma and emergency assessments, "Exposure" reminds the nurse to fully expose
the patient to perform a thorough head-to-toe assessment while preventing hypothermia.
4. When administering a subcutaneous injection, the nurse should use which size needle
typically?
A. 18-20 gauge
B. 21-25 gauge, 5/8 inch
C. 25-27 gauge, 1/2 to 5/8 inch
D. 16 gauge, 1.5 inch
B. 21-25 gauge, 5/8 inch
Rationale: Subcutaneous injections are administered into the fatty tissue below the skin. A 25-
gauge, 5/8-inch needle is common for medications like insulin or heparin, as it is short and small
enough to prevent accidental intramuscular injection.
5. A patient has a new order for a diuretic. Which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most
concerned about monitoring?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Many common diuretics (like furosemide) are potassium-wasting, meaning they
cause the kidneys to excrete excess potassium, leading to a risk of hypokalemia, which can
cause dangerous cardiac arrhythmias.
6. The nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube. To determine the correct length for
insertion, the nurse should measure from the:
A. Tip of the nose to the xiphoid process.
B. Corner of the mouth to the earlobe to the xiphoid process.
C. Tip of the nose to the earlobe to the umbilicus.
D. Chin to the sternal notch.
A. Tip of the nose to the xiphoid process.
Rationale: This is the standard measurement technique (NEX method) to ensure the tube is
long enough to reach from the nose, down the esophagus, and into the stomach.
7. Which vital sign is considered the least reliable indicator of acute pain?
A. Heart Rate
B. Blood Pressure
C. Respiratory Rate
D. Temperature
, D. Temperature
Rationale: Pain does not directly cause a change in body temperature. While other vital signs
like HR and BP may elevate with pain, they are also influenced by many other factors (anxiety,
activity), making self-report the gold standard.
8. A patient on bed rest is at risk for impaired skin integrity. Which intervention is most
effective for prevention?
A. Massaging reddened areas vigorously.
B. Repositioning the patient every 2 hours.
C. Using donut-shaped cushions.
D. Applying talcum powder to moist areas.
B. Repositioning the patient every 2 hours.
Rationale: Frequent repositioning is the cornerstone of pressure ulcer prevention as it relieves
prolonged pressure on bony prominences, which is the primary cause of tissue ischemia and
breakdown.
9. When communicating with a patient who has a hearing impairment, the nurse should:
A. Speak directly into the patient's ear.
B. Speak slowly and clearly in a low-pitched tone.
C. Raise their voice to a shout.
D. Use complex sentences to provide full context.
B. Speak slowly and clearly in a low-pitched tone.
Rationale: Many hearing impairments involve the loss of high-frequency sounds. A low-pitched,
clear voice is easier to hear. Shouting distorts sound and can be perceived as aggressive.
10. The nurse is assessing a patient's jugular venous pressure (JVP). What patient position is
required for an accurate assessment?
A. Supine with the head of the bed at 90 degrees.
B. Supine with the head of the bed at 30-45 degrees.
C. Left lateral recumbent.
D. High-Fowler's.
B. Supine with the head of the bed at 30-45 degrees.
Rationale: This position allows the internal jugular vein to be visible just above the clavicle
without being overly distended, which is necessary for an accurate assessment of central
venous pressure.
11. A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the nurse why they need to check their blood sugar.
The nurse's best response is based on the understanding that regular monitoring:
A. Cures the disease over time.
B. Prevents the need for insulin.
