EMS1055 Quiz Questions (Quizzes 1-14)
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1. What does the R in the CHART acronym represent?: Treatment rendered
2. Which patients should you protect yourself with BSI precautions?: All patients
[patients who look sick, patients who are bleeding, patients with a productive cough, etc.]
3. Regrading medical abbreviations, what does the letter C with a line above it
mean?: with
4. You are assessing the pupils of a patient with a significant head injury. You
notice that one pupils is dilated while the other appears normal (ipsilateral
pupil dilation). What condition do you suspect?: Cerebral herniation
5. You initiate treatment of an injured patient. You are waiting for help to arrive,
but are in a huge hurry. You decide to leave before handing over care to an
equal or higher level provider. This is called?: Abandonment
6. The respiratory pattern that is fast and deep, often associated with metabolic
acidosis secondary to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is called?: Kussmal's
7. Which of the following is defined by only performing skills and treatment that
fall within your certification and training?: Scope of Practice
8. Which of the following patients is experiencing tachypnea?: A patient with a respiratory
rate of 25 bpm
9. You palpate a radial pulse and it is present. You know that the systolic blood
pressure is at LEAST?: 80 mmHg
10. You ask an adult patient for consent to treat them and they verbally respond
that you can. What kind of consent is this?: Expressed
11. Which adjunct airway is best used in patients with an intact gag reflex?: NPA
12. An OPA is measured from: edge of the mouth to the angle of the jaw
13. Which of the following is NOT a sign of inadequate breathing?: Tachypnea [while
patients with inadequate breathing may be tachypnic, it's not a sign of inadequate breathing when no other signs are
present]
14. How much oxygen flow should you set for a BVM?: 10-15 LPM
15. How much oxygen flow should you set for a patient on a nasal cannula?: 2-6
LPM
16. You place a patient on a SpO2 monitor. You know from lecture that you
should place oxygen on any patient with a reading lower than what value?: 94%
, EMS1055 Quiz Questions (Quizzes 1-14)
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17. Which pulse point, when palpated can cause a vagal response and/or cause
a stroke?: carotid
18. Which nare of the nose is typically larger and should be used for NPA
insertion?: Right
19. How much oxygen should you flow for a patient on a NRBM?: 10-15 LPM
20. You are assessing AVPU on a patient. The patients eyes are closed and does
not respond to your voice. You perform a light sternal rub and the patient
groans. What score do you give on the AVPU scale?: Pain
21. When treating a patient with a penetrating wound, you should look for:: an
exit wound
22. You arrive at the scene of a MVC involving a truck that has a diamond placard
that says "corrosive" and it's leaking fluid on the ground. You should:: keep a safe
distance and notify dispatch
23. The Golden Hour begins at the moment a patient is injured. When does it
end?: When the patient gets to surgery
24. Which of the following organs will suffer the least structural damage from
a gunshot wound from a rifle?: Lung [generally, damage done is proportional to tissue density; highly
dense organs such as bone, muscle, and the liver sustain more damage than less dense organs such as the lungs]
25. A patient who is ejected from a rollover MVC has an increase change of death
of: 25%
26. What par of the body does a primary blast injury primary involve?: Air containing
organs
27. In a rear-impact motor vehicle crash, which area of the spine is most suscep-
tible to injury?: Cervical [the sudden increase in acceleration produces posterior displacement of the occupants
and possible hyperextension of the cervical spine if the headrest is not properly adjusted; the potential for cervical spine
injuries is great]
28. You are about to assess a trauma patient. Which step is done first?: Assess for
hemorrhage
29. Which of the following is a devastating injury seen in lateral (side) impact
collisions?: Aortic rupture
, EMS1055 Quiz Questions (Quizzes 1-14)
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30. Stabilizing an impaled object is the rule of thumb for all penetrating injuries.
What is the only exception where you remove the object?: Impaled objects blocking the
airway
31. What is the medical term for hives as seen in allergic reactions?: Urticaria
32. A 52 y/o female presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and
diaphoresis. You should:: Assess adequacy of her respirations
33. A patient who is alert, speaking normally and obeys all commands has a GCS
Score of:: 15
34. A patient has a blood pressure of 160/82. What is their MAP?: 108
35. You respond to the scene of an MVC. You find a 20 y/o male entrapped
in the vehicle. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. You
perform a general impression, you suspect the patient is apnic. How should
you proceed?: Asses the patient for exsanguination, check ABC's
36. A patient has a blood pressure of 160/82. What is their pulse pressure?: 78
37. What lungs sounds do you hear?: Wheezes
38. A general impression of the patient should be performed:: at a distance when the
patient is first seen
39. You are assessing a patient who is responsive to painful stimuli. The are not
speaking but lets out an occasional moan. When you apply painful stimuli, they
withdraw from the pain. What is the patients GCS Score?: 8
40. Which of the following is correct?: Your hand is distal to your elbow
41. Which of the following is NOT part of the DCAP-BLS-TIC acronym?: Bruising
42. A 42-year-old male is involved in a motorcycle collision. Which of the follow-
ing assessment findings should be managed first?: External Arterial Bleed
[if patient has major bleeding, priority is C-A-B-C. The first C stands for control life-threatening bleeding. (do no confuse
this with the American Heart Association/ILCOR's "CAB" for cardiac arrest, where the C stands for compressions.) If your
patient has major external bleeding, you must immediately control it.]
43. You finished the primary survey of an 18 y/o female with an altered LOC with
significant signs of a head injury. You are 15 minutes from the trauma center.
When do you perform the secondary survey?: During transport
44. When performing the ITLS Primary Survery, the team leader may minimize
errors by:: Delegating interventions [this team approach makes the most efficient use of time and allows you to
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hvxu44
1. What does the R in the CHART acronym represent?: Treatment rendered
2. Which patients should you protect yourself with BSI precautions?: All patients
[patients who look sick, patients who are bleeding, patients with a productive cough, etc.]
3. Regrading medical abbreviations, what does the letter C with a line above it
mean?: with
4. You are assessing the pupils of a patient with a significant head injury. You
notice that one pupils is dilated while the other appears normal (ipsilateral
pupil dilation). What condition do you suspect?: Cerebral herniation
5. You initiate treatment of an injured patient. You are waiting for help to arrive,
but are in a huge hurry. You decide to leave before handing over care to an
equal or higher level provider. This is called?: Abandonment
6. The respiratory pattern that is fast and deep, often associated with metabolic
acidosis secondary to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is called?: Kussmal's
7. Which of the following is defined by only performing skills and treatment that
fall within your certification and training?: Scope of Practice
8. Which of the following patients is experiencing tachypnea?: A patient with a respiratory
rate of 25 bpm
9. You palpate a radial pulse and it is present. You know that the systolic blood
pressure is at LEAST?: 80 mmHg
10. You ask an adult patient for consent to treat them and they verbally respond
that you can. What kind of consent is this?: Expressed
11. Which adjunct airway is best used in patients with an intact gag reflex?: NPA
12. An OPA is measured from: edge of the mouth to the angle of the jaw
13. Which of the following is NOT a sign of inadequate breathing?: Tachypnea [while
patients with inadequate breathing may be tachypnic, it's not a sign of inadequate breathing when no other signs are
present]
14. How much oxygen flow should you set for a BVM?: 10-15 LPM
15. How much oxygen flow should you set for a patient on a nasal cannula?: 2-6
LPM
16. You place a patient on a SpO2 monitor. You know from lecture that you
should place oxygen on any patient with a reading lower than what value?: 94%
, EMS1055 Quiz Questions (Quizzes 1-14)
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hvxu44
17. Which pulse point, when palpated can cause a vagal response and/or cause
a stroke?: carotid
18. Which nare of the nose is typically larger and should be used for NPA
insertion?: Right
19. How much oxygen should you flow for a patient on a NRBM?: 10-15 LPM
20. You are assessing AVPU on a patient. The patients eyes are closed and does
not respond to your voice. You perform a light sternal rub and the patient
groans. What score do you give on the AVPU scale?: Pain
21. When treating a patient with a penetrating wound, you should look for:: an
exit wound
22. You arrive at the scene of a MVC involving a truck that has a diamond placard
that says "corrosive" and it's leaking fluid on the ground. You should:: keep a safe
distance and notify dispatch
23. The Golden Hour begins at the moment a patient is injured. When does it
end?: When the patient gets to surgery
24. Which of the following organs will suffer the least structural damage from
a gunshot wound from a rifle?: Lung [generally, damage done is proportional to tissue density; highly
dense organs such as bone, muscle, and the liver sustain more damage than less dense organs such as the lungs]
25. A patient who is ejected from a rollover MVC has an increase change of death
of: 25%
26. What par of the body does a primary blast injury primary involve?: Air containing
organs
27. In a rear-impact motor vehicle crash, which area of the spine is most suscep-
tible to injury?: Cervical [the sudden increase in acceleration produces posterior displacement of the occupants
and possible hyperextension of the cervical spine if the headrest is not properly adjusted; the potential for cervical spine
injuries is great]
28. You are about to assess a trauma patient. Which step is done first?: Assess for
hemorrhage
29. Which of the following is a devastating injury seen in lateral (side) impact
collisions?: Aortic rupture
, EMS1055 Quiz Questions (Quizzes 1-14)
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hvxu44
30. Stabilizing an impaled object is the rule of thumb for all penetrating injuries.
What is the only exception where you remove the object?: Impaled objects blocking the
airway
31. What is the medical term for hives as seen in allergic reactions?: Urticaria
32. A 52 y/o female presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and
diaphoresis. You should:: Assess adequacy of her respirations
33. A patient who is alert, speaking normally and obeys all commands has a GCS
Score of:: 15
34. A patient has a blood pressure of 160/82. What is their MAP?: 108
35. You respond to the scene of an MVC. You find a 20 y/o male entrapped
in the vehicle. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. You
perform a general impression, you suspect the patient is apnic. How should
you proceed?: Asses the patient for exsanguination, check ABC's
36. A patient has a blood pressure of 160/82. What is their pulse pressure?: 78
37. What lungs sounds do you hear?: Wheezes
38. A general impression of the patient should be performed:: at a distance when the
patient is first seen
39. You are assessing a patient who is responsive to painful stimuli. The are not
speaking but lets out an occasional moan. When you apply painful stimuli, they
withdraw from the pain. What is the patients GCS Score?: 8
40. Which of the following is correct?: Your hand is distal to your elbow
41. Which of the following is NOT part of the DCAP-BLS-TIC acronym?: Bruising
42. A 42-year-old male is involved in a motorcycle collision. Which of the follow-
ing assessment findings should be managed first?: External Arterial Bleed
[if patient has major bleeding, priority is C-A-B-C. The first C stands for control life-threatening bleeding. (do no confuse
this with the American Heart Association/ILCOR's "CAB" for cardiac arrest, where the C stands for compressions.) If your
patient has major external bleeding, you must immediately control it.]
43. You finished the primary survey of an 18 y/o female with an altered LOC with
significant signs of a head injury. You are 15 minutes from the trauma center.
When do you perform the secondary survey?: During transport
44. When performing the ITLS Primary Survery, the team leader may minimize
errors by:: Delegating interventions [this team approach makes the most efficient use of time and allows you to
