2023 OB Maternity HESI Exit Exam Version
1, 2 & 3 – NextGen Format with Brand New
Questions and 100% Correct Verified
Answers | A+ Guaranteed
Below are 100 multiple-choice questions (divided across Versions 1, 2, and 3, with
approximately 33-34 per version) designed to simulate the 2023 HESI OB Maternity Exit Exam in
NextGen format. These questions are brand new, based on current clinical guidelines (e.g.,
ACOG, AAP, CDC) and verified standards for maternity nursing. Each question includes four
options (A, B, C, D), the correct answer marked with (Correct Answer: X), and a detailed
rationale explaining why the correct answer is right. These questions cover antepartum,
intrapartum, postpartum, newborn care, and complications, ensuring comprehensive preparation
for an A+ grade.
Version 1 (Questions 1-33)
Question 1: A primipara at 30 weeks gestation delivers a stillborn fetus. To assist the
parents with grieving, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
A. Encourage immediate discharge
B. Offer to take photographs of the infant
C. Administer sedatives to the mother
D. Avoid discussing the loss
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Offering to take photographs allows parents to create memories, facilitating the
grieving process as per ACOG guidelines for perinatal loss. Immediate discharge (A) delays
emotional support, sedatives (C) may impair coping, and avoiding discussion (D) isolates
parents.
Question 2: A client at 34 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding. Assessment
reveals 30 mL of bright red blood. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Prepare for immediate delivery
B. Perform a vaginal exam
C. Assess fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs
D. Administer RhoGAM
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessing fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs prioritizes stability in potential
placental abruption or previa, per ACOG. Delivery (A) is premature, vaginal exam (B) risks
worsening bleeding, and RhoGAM (D) is for Rh-negative clients post-confirmation.
Question 3: The nurse is caring for a newborn delivered via forceps. The nurse
observes red marks on the head with swelling that does not cross the suture line. Which
condition should the nurse document?
A. Caput succedaneum
B. Cephalohematoma
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Microcephaly
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cephalohematoma is subperiosteal bleeding from forceps, not crossing sutures, per
AAP newborn assessment guidelines. Caput (A) crosses sutures and resolves quickly,
hydrocephalus (C) is ventricular enlargement, and microcephaly (D) is small head size.
Question 4: A client at 8 cm dilation reports extreme discomfort and urge to bear down.
What should the nurse implement?
A. Administer IV pain medication
B. Perform a vaginal exam
C. Reposition to side-lying
D. Encourage pushing with contractions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Side-lying repositions relieves pressure and prevents involuntary pushing until full
dilation, per intrapartum guidelines. Pain medication (A) may slow labor, vaginal exam (B) is
unnecessary, and pushing (D) risks injury.
Question 5: A multipara at term has contractions every 3 minutes. What is the priority
assessment?
A. Gravidity and parity
B. Cervical dilation
C. Fetal heart rate
D. Urine output
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: Frequent contractions require fetal heart rate monitoring for distress, per ACOG.
Gravidity/parity (A) is history, dilation (B) confirms labor stage, and urine (D) is routine.
Question 6: On postpartum day 1, the nurse examines a new mother's breast. Which
finding is expected?
A. Engorgement with tenderness
B. Colostrum leakage
C. Warmth and erythema
D. Firm, nontender lobules
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Colostrum leakage is normal on day 1 as breasts transition, per postpartum
assessment. Engorgement (A) occurs day 3-5, warmth/erythema (C) suggests infection, and
firm lobules (D) indicate let-down.
Question 7: A client with UTI symptoms is prescribed nitrofurantoin. What teaching is
essential?
A. Take with milk to reduce GI upset
B. Avoid fluids to concentrate the drug
C. Complete full course even if symptoms resolve
D. Expect blue-green urine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Completing the full antibiotic course prevents resistance, per CDC UTI guidelines.
Milk (A) interacts, fluids (B) are encouraged, and urine color (D) is not a side effect.
Question 8: A newborn has tonic-clonic seizures and hypocalcemia. What is the priority
intervention?
A. Administer phenobarbital
B. Monitor calcium levels
C. Perform lumbar puncture
D. Start IV glucose
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring calcium addresses hypocalcemia causing seizures, per AAP neonatal
guidelines. Phenobarbital (A) is for ongoing seizures, LP (C) for infection, and glucose (D) for
hypoglycemia.
Question 9: A client at 14 weeks gestation has right lower quadrant pain and shoulder
pain after a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. What is the priority diagnostic test?
1, 2 & 3 – NextGen Format with Brand New
Questions and 100% Correct Verified
Answers | A+ Guaranteed
Below are 100 multiple-choice questions (divided across Versions 1, 2, and 3, with
approximately 33-34 per version) designed to simulate the 2023 HESI OB Maternity Exit Exam in
NextGen format. These questions are brand new, based on current clinical guidelines (e.g.,
ACOG, AAP, CDC) and verified standards for maternity nursing. Each question includes four
options (A, B, C, D), the correct answer marked with (Correct Answer: X), and a detailed
rationale explaining why the correct answer is right. These questions cover antepartum,
intrapartum, postpartum, newborn care, and complications, ensuring comprehensive preparation
for an A+ grade.
Version 1 (Questions 1-33)
Question 1: A primipara at 30 weeks gestation delivers a stillborn fetus. To assist the
parents with grieving, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
A. Encourage immediate discharge
B. Offer to take photographs of the infant
C. Administer sedatives to the mother
D. Avoid discussing the loss
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Offering to take photographs allows parents to create memories, facilitating the
grieving process as per ACOG guidelines for perinatal loss. Immediate discharge (A) delays
emotional support, sedatives (C) may impair coping, and avoiding discussion (D) isolates
parents.
Question 2: A client at 34 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding. Assessment
reveals 30 mL of bright red blood. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Prepare for immediate delivery
B. Perform a vaginal exam
C. Assess fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs
D. Administer RhoGAM
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessing fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs prioritizes stability in potential
placental abruption or previa, per ACOG. Delivery (A) is premature, vaginal exam (B) risks
worsening bleeding, and RhoGAM (D) is for Rh-negative clients post-confirmation.
Question 3: The nurse is caring for a newborn delivered via forceps. The nurse
observes red marks on the head with swelling that does not cross the suture line. Which
condition should the nurse document?
A. Caput succedaneum
B. Cephalohematoma
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Microcephaly
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cephalohematoma is subperiosteal bleeding from forceps, not crossing sutures, per
AAP newborn assessment guidelines. Caput (A) crosses sutures and resolves quickly,
hydrocephalus (C) is ventricular enlargement, and microcephaly (D) is small head size.
Question 4: A client at 8 cm dilation reports extreme discomfort and urge to bear down.
What should the nurse implement?
A. Administer IV pain medication
B. Perform a vaginal exam
C. Reposition to side-lying
D. Encourage pushing with contractions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Side-lying repositions relieves pressure and prevents involuntary pushing until full
dilation, per intrapartum guidelines. Pain medication (A) may slow labor, vaginal exam (B) is
unnecessary, and pushing (D) risks injury.
Question 5: A multipara at term has contractions every 3 minutes. What is the priority
assessment?
A. Gravidity and parity
B. Cervical dilation
C. Fetal heart rate
D. Urine output
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: Frequent contractions require fetal heart rate monitoring for distress, per ACOG.
Gravidity/parity (A) is history, dilation (B) confirms labor stage, and urine (D) is routine.
Question 6: On postpartum day 1, the nurse examines a new mother's breast. Which
finding is expected?
A. Engorgement with tenderness
B. Colostrum leakage
C. Warmth and erythema
D. Firm, nontender lobules
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Colostrum leakage is normal on day 1 as breasts transition, per postpartum
assessment. Engorgement (A) occurs day 3-5, warmth/erythema (C) suggests infection, and
firm lobules (D) indicate let-down.
Question 7: A client with UTI symptoms is prescribed nitrofurantoin. What teaching is
essential?
A. Take with milk to reduce GI upset
B. Avoid fluids to concentrate the drug
C. Complete full course even if symptoms resolve
D. Expect blue-green urine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Completing the full antibiotic course prevents resistance, per CDC UTI guidelines.
Milk (A) interacts, fluids (B) are encouraged, and urine color (D) is not a side effect.
Question 8: A newborn has tonic-clonic seizures and hypocalcemia. What is the priority
intervention?
A. Administer phenobarbital
B. Monitor calcium levels
C. Perform lumbar puncture
D. Start IV glucose
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring calcium addresses hypocalcemia causing seizures, per AAP neonatal
guidelines. Phenobarbital (A) is for ongoing seizures, LP (C) for infection, and glucose (D) for
hypoglycemia.
Question 9: A client at 14 weeks gestation has right lower quadrant pain and shoulder
pain after a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. What is the priority diagnostic test?
