West Coast EMT Block Exam Prep 2025/2026 |
220 Verified Practice Questions & Correct
Answers | Emergency Medical Technician
Study Guide & Test Bank
1. What is the primary responsibility of an EMT during a call?
(A) To diagnose medical conditions
(B) To provide patient care and transport
(C) To perform surgeries
(D) To administer all medications
Rationale: EMTs are primarily responsible for providing care and transporting
patients to medical facilities.
2. What is the first step in the primary assessment of a patient?
(A) Check vital signs
(B) Ensure scene safety
(C) Obtain patient history
(D) Administer oxygen
Rationale: Ensuring scene safety is the first step to protect both the EMT and the
patient.
3. What does the acronym "CAB" stand for in CPR?
(A) Compression, Assessment, Breathing
(B) Circulation, Airway, Breathing
(C) Circulation, Assessment, Breathing
(D) Compression, Airway, Breathing
Rationale: "CAB" emphasizes checking circulation first in cardiac emergencies.
4. Which of the following is a common sign of shock?
(A) Elevated blood pressure
(B) Rapid pulse
(C) Warm, dry skin
(D) Increased appetite
Rationale: A rapid pulse is a common indicator of shock as the body attempts to
compensate.
5. What is the recommended dose of epinephrine for an adult experiencing
anaphylaxis?
, (A) 0.1 mg
(B) 0.3 to 0.5 mg
(C) 1.0 mg
(D) 0.05 mg
Rationale: The standard dose for adults experiencing anaphylaxis is 0.3 to 0.5
mg of epinephrine.
6. What is the significance of obtaining a patient’s medical history?
(A) To limit care options
(B) To inform treatment decisions
(C) To reduce transport time
(D) To diagnose conditions
Rationale: A patient's medical history helps inform treatment decisions and
understand their conditions.
7. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a spinal immobilization
device?
(A) To improve comfort
(B) To prevent movement of the spine
(C) To speed up transport
(D) To administer medications
Rationale: Spinal immobilization devices are used to prevent any movement of
the spine in suspected spinal injuries.
8. What is the normal respiratory rate for adults at rest?
(A) 8-12 breaths per minute
(B) 12-20 breaths per minute
(C) 20-30 breaths per minute
(D) 30-40 breaths per minute
Rationale: The normal respiratory rate for adults at rest typically falls between
12 and 20 breaths per minute.
9. What is the primary cause of a pulmonary embolism?
(A) Pneumonia
(B) Deep vein thrombosis
(C) Asthma
(D) Hyperventilation
Rationale: A pulmonary embolism commonly occurs due to a blood clot that
travels from the deep veins of the legs (DVT).
,10. What is a common symptom of myocardial infarction in women?
(A) Chest pain only
(B) Nausea and fatigue
(C) Shortness of breath only
(D) Sweating
Rationale: Women may experience atypical symptoms during a heart attack,
such as nausea and fatigue.
11. Which of the following is a contraindication for administering nitroglycerin?
(A) Chest pain
(B) Systolic blood pressure below 100 mmHg
(C) History of angina
(D) Age over 65
Rationale: Administering nitroglycerin to a patient with low blood pressure can
exacerbate hypotension.
12. What is the primary purpose of using an AED (automated external
defibrillator)?
(A) To monitor heart function
(B) To restore normal heart rhythm during cardiac arrest
(C) To provide oxygen
(D) To administer medications
Rationale: An AED delivers a shock to help restore a normal heart rhythm during
cardiac arrest.
13. What is the significance of "suctioning" in airway management?
(A) To clear the airway of obstructions
(B) To prevent aspiration
(C) To increase oxygen flow
(D) To relieve chest pain
Rationale: Suctioning is critical for clearing the airway of fluids or obstructions
to prevent aspiration.
14. What is the most appropriate position for a patient experiencing difficulty
breathing?
(A) Lying flat
(B) Sitting upright
(C) On their side
, (D) Standing
Rationale: Sitting upright can help ease breathing and decrease the workload on
the lungs.
15. What is the primary action of a beta-agonist medication, such as albuterol?
(A) To decrease heart rate
(B) To relax bronchial smooth muscle
(C) To increase blood pressure
(D) To reduce inflammation
Rationale: Beta-agonists like albuterol are bronchodilators that relax bronchial
muscles, improving airflow.
16. What is a common complication of untreated hypertension?
(A) Increased energy
(B) Heart failure
(C) Decreased appetite
(D) Improved circulation
Rationale: Untreated hypertension can lead to serious complications, including
heart failure.
17. What does the term "bradycardia" refer to?
(A) Rapid heart rate
(B) Slow heart rate
(C) Irregular heart rhythm
(D) Normal heart rhythm
Rationale: Bradycardia refers to an abnormally slow heart rate, typically below
60 beats per minute.
18. What is the first action to take if a patient is unresponsive and not breathing?
(A) Call for emergency medical assistance
(B) Check for a pulse
(C) Start CPR immediately
(D) Wait for them to recover
Rationale: Calling for help is crucial to ensure advanced medical care is on the
way while initiating CPR.
19. What is the purpose of performing a secondary assessment in a patient with
chest pain?
(A) To treat the patient
220 Verified Practice Questions & Correct
Answers | Emergency Medical Technician
Study Guide & Test Bank
1. What is the primary responsibility of an EMT during a call?
(A) To diagnose medical conditions
(B) To provide patient care and transport
(C) To perform surgeries
(D) To administer all medications
Rationale: EMTs are primarily responsible for providing care and transporting
patients to medical facilities.
2. What is the first step in the primary assessment of a patient?
(A) Check vital signs
(B) Ensure scene safety
(C) Obtain patient history
(D) Administer oxygen
Rationale: Ensuring scene safety is the first step to protect both the EMT and the
patient.
3. What does the acronym "CAB" stand for in CPR?
(A) Compression, Assessment, Breathing
(B) Circulation, Airway, Breathing
(C) Circulation, Assessment, Breathing
(D) Compression, Airway, Breathing
Rationale: "CAB" emphasizes checking circulation first in cardiac emergencies.
4. Which of the following is a common sign of shock?
(A) Elevated blood pressure
(B) Rapid pulse
(C) Warm, dry skin
(D) Increased appetite
Rationale: A rapid pulse is a common indicator of shock as the body attempts to
compensate.
5. What is the recommended dose of epinephrine for an adult experiencing
anaphylaxis?
, (A) 0.1 mg
(B) 0.3 to 0.5 mg
(C) 1.0 mg
(D) 0.05 mg
Rationale: The standard dose for adults experiencing anaphylaxis is 0.3 to 0.5
mg of epinephrine.
6. What is the significance of obtaining a patient’s medical history?
(A) To limit care options
(B) To inform treatment decisions
(C) To reduce transport time
(D) To diagnose conditions
Rationale: A patient's medical history helps inform treatment decisions and
understand their conditions.
7. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a spinal immobilization
device?
(A) To improve comfort
(B) To prevent movement of the spine
(C) To speed up transport
(D) To administer medications
Rationale: Spinal immobilization devices are used to prevent any movement of
the spine in suspected spinal injuries.
8. What is the normal respiratory rate for adults at rest?
(A) 8-12 breaths per minute
(B) 12-20 breaths per minute
(C) 20-30 breaths per minute
(D) 30-40 breaths per minute
Rationale: The normal respiratory rate for adults at rest typically falls between
12 and 20 breaths per minute.
9. What is the primary cause of a pulmonary embolism?
(A) Pneumonia
(B) Deep vein thrombosis
(C) Asthma
(D) Hyperventilation
Rationale: A pulmonary embolism commonly occurs due to a blood clot that
travels from the deep veins of the legs (DVT).
,10. What is a common symptom of myocardial infarction in women?
(A) Chest pain only
(B) Nausea and fatigue
(C) Shortness of breath only
(D) Sweating
Rationale: Women may experience atypical symptoms during a heart attack,
such as nausea and fatigue.
11. Which of the following is a contraindication for administering nitroglycerin?
(A) Chest pain
(B) Systolic blood pressure below 100 mmHg
(C) History of angina
(D) Age over 65
Rationale: Administering nitroglycerin to a patient with low blood pressure can
exacerbate hypotension.
12. What is the primary purpose of using an AED (automated external
defibrillator)?
(A) To monitor heart function
(B) To restore normal heart rhythm during cardiac arrest
(C) To provide oxygen
(D) To administer medications
Rationale: An AED delivers a shock to help restore a normal heart rhythm during
cardiac arrest.
13. What is the significance of "suctioning" in airway management?
(A) To clear the airway of obstructions
(B) To prevent aspiration
(C) To increase oxygen flow
(D) To relieve chest pain
Rationale: Suctioning is critical for clearing the airway of fluids or obstructions
to prevent aspiration.
14. What is the most appropriate position for a patient experiencing difficulty
breathing?
(A) Lying flat
(B) Sitting upright
(C) On their side
, (D) Standing
Rationale: Sitting upright can help ease breathing and decrease the workload on
the lungs.
15. What is the primary action of a beta-agonist medication, such as albuterol?
(A) To decrease heart rate
(B) To relax bronchial smooth muscle
(C) To increase blood pressure
(D) To reduce inflammation
Rationale: Beta-agonists like albuterol are bronchodilators that relax bronchial
muscles, improving airflow.
16. What is a common complication of untreated hypertension?
(A) Increased energy
(B) Heart failure
(C) Decreased appetite
(D) Improved circulation
Rationale: Untreated hypertension can lead to serious complications, including
heart failure.
17. What does the term "bradycardia" refer to?
(A) Rapid heart rate
(B) Slow heart rate
(C) Irregular heart rhythm
(D) Normal heart rhythm
Rationale: Bradycardia refers to an abnormally slow heart rate, typically below
60 beats per minute.
18. What is the first action to take if a patient is unresponsive and not breathing?
(A) Call for emergency medical assistance
(B) Check for a pulse
(C) Start CPR immediately
(D) Wait for them to recover
Rationale: Calling for help is crucial to ensure advanced medical care is on the
way while initiating CPR.
19. What is the purpose of performing a secondary assessment in a patient with
chest pain?
(A) To treat the patient
