D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? - (correct Answer) - Sex-
Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected chromosome has the illness, it
will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? - (correct Answer) -
Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known cause of
intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - (correct Answer) - Chorionic villus sampling
(CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic
studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic information
found in utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a
form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second
trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to
implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one chromosome with a
normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing gene? - (correct Answer) - Cri du chat
syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often
heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low
birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - (correct Answer) - The disease can be
transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an unaffected X to a
daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the disease because she has the other
X (the only X the father can give to a female) to cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire population to the
disease rate in an unexposed population? - (correct Answer) - Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an
actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? - (correct Answer) - Many factors
from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case
individually provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - (correct Answer) - The imprinted gene is the silent gene
of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing? -
(correct Answer) - The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's reserves to fight against
,illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? - (correct Answer) - Eosinophils are
the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - (correct Answer) - Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - (correct Answer) - Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the
antigen? - (correct Answer) - Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize something
foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an ABO
incompatibility? - (correct Answer) - The complement pathway is activated in response to blood
incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - (correct Answer) - An immediate
(type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - (correct Answer) - Infection with a fungus is
called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses, including
ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect infection? - (correct
Answer) - Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody
testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a
false negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is
suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - (correct Answer) - Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon cancer? -
(correct Answer) - The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and have
demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most likely to develop? -
(correct Answer) - Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - (correct Answer) - UV light causes basal
cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing thymine base
pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell
death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? - (correct Answer) - Exercise-induced
myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control and has been shown
to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
,true or false - (correct Answer) - TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health outcomes may result.
One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to incorporate research and
evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood through university-level education in a manner
consistent with an individual's literacy level.
True or false - (correct Answer) - True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial for understanding and
compliance.
What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy? - (correct Answer) - Low literacy often leads to perceived
noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication instructions. Ensuring the patient fully
understands all instructions is critical for understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories.
Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation? - (correct Answer) - Those who
have a family history of genetic disorders
Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity.
What do these genes influence? - (correct Answer) - Regulation of appetite-Research has shown that
genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite.
Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 black Americans
an example of? - (correct Answer) - Prevalence tells us how often disease is seen in a population, which
includes all people with the disease at a given time, at any stage in the disease progression.
What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome? - (correct Answer) - Prader-
Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15. Normally, a portion of this
chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi syndrome, the chromosome inherited
from the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? - (correct Answer) - Prevent infection of the
injured tissue
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged tissue so the body can
heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reactions when considering white
blood cell differentials?
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
, Eosinophils - (correct Answer) - Neutrophils are one of the first responders to acute inflammation, and
an increase in neutrophils demonstrates an acute inflammatory response.
Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after
immunization against the antigen? - (correct Answer) - Active-acquired immunity or naturally acquired
active immunity occurs when an individual is exposed to a live pathogen and develops the disease or
becomes immune as a result of a vaccine.
Which characteristics do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop
allergies? - (correct Answer) - The greater quantities of IgE in atopic individuals make them genetically
predisposed to develop allergies. IgE mediates the immune response to allergens; therefore, the more
IgE one has, the stronger the response can be to an allergen. Think of it as having more soldiers in the
army to fight the war.
A healthcare professional is conducting community education on vaccinations.
Which statement about vaccines should the professional include in the presentation? - (correct Answer)
- Vaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long protection.
Most vaccines require a booster to increase immunity. The initial effects of a vaccine may diminish over
time, and boosters improve protection against disease.
Which term describes an agent's ability to produce disease? - (correct Answer) - Pathogenicity refers to
an organism's ability to create or produce disease.
What are signs and symptoms of Cri du Chrat Syndrome? - (correct Answer) - DNA deletion of
chromosome 5. low birth weight, mental retardation, microencephaly, and cat like cry
What are the 3 layers of human defense? - (correct Answer) - Physical, Mechanical, biochemical barriers
What happens in the physical layer of human defense. - (correct Answer) - protect against damage and
infection are composed of tightly associated epithelial cells including those of the skin and of the
membranous sheets lining the gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and respiratory tracts.
What is the second line of defense and the process? - (correct Answer) - Inflammatory response- rapid
and nonspecific, protective response to cellular injury from any cause. It can occur only in vascularized
tissue.
How do acute and chronic inflammation differ? - (correct Answer) - Acute- Short duration, 8-10 days
from onset to healing.
Chronic inflammation- can be a continuation of acute inflammation that last 2 weeks or longer. It can
also occur as a distinct process without much preceding acute inflammation
What three systemic changes associated with acute inflammatory response - (correct Answer) - Fever,
leukocytosis, plasma protein synthesis
How does the inflammatory response differ in neonates? - (correct Answer) - Neonates often have
transiently depressed inflammatory function, particularly neutrophil chemotaxis and alternative
complement activity.
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? - (correct Answer) - Sex-
Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected chromosome has the illness, it
will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? - (correct Answer) -
Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known cause of
intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - (correct Answer) - Chorionic villus sampling
(CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic
studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic information
found in utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a
form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second
trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to
implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one chromosome with a
normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing gene? - (correct Answer) - Cri du chat
syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often
heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low
birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - (correct Answer) - The disease can be
transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an unaffected X to a
daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the disease because she has the other
X (the only X the father can give to a female) to cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire population to the
disease rate in an unexposed population? - (correct Answer) - Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an
actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? - (correct Answer) - Many factors
from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case
individually provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - (correct Answer) - The imprinted gene is the silent gene
of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing? -
(correct Answer) - The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's reserves to fight against
,illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? - (correct Answer) - Eosinophils are
the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - (correct Answer) - Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - (correct Answer) - Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the
antigen? - (correct Answer) - Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize something
foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an ABO
incompatibility? - (correct Answer) - The complement pathway is activated in response to blood
incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - (correct Answer) - An immediate
(type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - (correct Answer) - Infection with a fungus is
called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses, including
ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect infection? - (correct
Answer) - Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody
testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a
false negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is
suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - (correct Answer) - Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon cancer? -
(correct Answer) - The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and have
demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most likely to develop? -
(correct Answer) - Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - (correct Answer) - UV light causes basal
cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing thymine base
pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell
death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? - (correct Answer) - Exercise-induced
myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control and has been shown
to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
,true or false - (correct Answer) - TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health outcomes may result.
One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to incorporate research and
evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood through university-level education in a manner
consistent with an individual's literacy level.
True or false - (correct Answer) - True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial for understanding and
compliance.
What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy? - (correct Answer) - Low literacy often leads to perceived
noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication instructions. Ensuring the patient fully
understands all instructions is critical for understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories.
Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation? - (correct Answer) - Those who
have a family history of genetic disorders
Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity.
What do these genes influence? - (correct Answer) - Regulation of appetite-Research has shown that
genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite.
Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 black Americans
an example of? - (correct Answer) - Prevalence tells us how often disease is seen in a population, which
includes all people with the disease at a given time, at any stage in the disease progression.
What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome? - (correct Answer) - Prader-
Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15. Normally, a portion of this
chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi syndrome, the chromosome inherited
from the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? - (correct Answer) - Prevent infection of the
injured tissue
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged tissue so the body can
heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reactions when considering white
blood cell differentials?
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
, Eosinophils - (correct Answer) - Neutrophils are one of the first responders to acute inflammation, and
an increase in neutrophils demonstrates an acute inflammatory response.
Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after
immunization against the antigen? - (correct Answer) - Active-acquired immunity or naturally acquired
active immunity occurs when an individual is exposed to a live pathogen and develops the disease or
becomes immune as a result of a vaccine.
Which characteristics do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop
allergies? - (correct Answer) - The greater quantities of IgE in atopic individuals make them genetically
predisposed to develop allergies. IgE mediates the immune response to allergens; therefore, the more
IgE one has, the stronger the response can be to an allergen. Think of it as having more soldiers in the
army to fight the war.
A healthcare professional is conducting community education on vaccinations.
Which statement about vaccines should the professional include in the presentation? - (correct Answer)
- Vaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long protection.
Most vaccines require a booster to increase immunity. The initial effects of a vaccine may diminish over
time, and boosters improve protection against disease.
Which term describes an agent's ability to produce disease? - (correct Answer) - Pathogenicity refers to
an organism's ability to create or produce disease.
What are signs and symptoms of Cri du Chrat Syndrome? - (correct Answer) - DNA deletion of
chromosome 5. low birth weight, mental retardation, microencephaly, and cat like cry
What are the 3 layers of human defense? - (correct Answer) - Physical, Mechanical, biochemical barriers
What happens in the physical layer of human defense. - (correct Answer) - protect against damage and
infection are composed of tightly associated epithelial cells including those of the skin and of the
membranous sheets lining the gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and respiratory tracts.
What is the second line of defense and the process? - (correct Answer) - Inflammatory response- rapid
and nonspecific, protective response to cellular injury from any cause. It can occur only in vascularized
tissue.
How do acute and chronic inflammation differ? - (correct Answer) - Acute- Short duration, 8-10 days
from onset to healing.
Chronic inflammation- can be a continuation of acute inflammation that last 2 weeks or longer. It can
also occur as a distinct process without much preceding acute inflammation
What three systemic changes associated with acute inflammatory response - (correct Answer) - Fever,
leukocytosis, plasma protein synthesis
How does the inflammatory response differ in neonates? - (correct Answer) - Neonates often have
transiently depressed inflammatory function, particularly neutrophil chemotaxis and alternative
complement activity.
