Med-Surg HESI (2025-2026 UPDATE) with
100+ Questions and Verified Rationalized
Answers, 100% Guarantee Pass
100% Verified Passing Score Guaranteed Expert Rationales Included
Question 1
6. A client is being discharged following radioactive seed implantation for prostate cancer. What is the most
important information that the nurse should provide to this client's family?
A. Follow exposure precautions.
B. Encourage regular meals.
C. Collect all urine.
D. Avoid touching the client
Correct Answer
A.Follow exposure precautions.
Rationale:
Clients being treated for prostate cancer with radioactive seed implants should be instructed regarding
the amount of time and distance needed to prevent excessive exposure that would pose a hazard to
others. Option B is a good suggestion to promote adequate nutrition but is not as important as option A.
Option C is unnecessary. Contact with the client is permitted but should be brief to limit radiation
exposure
Question 2
18. A client with type 2 diabetes takes metformin (Glucophage) daily. The client is scheduled for major
surgery requiring general anesthesia the next day. The nurse anticipates which approach to manage the
client's diabetes best while the client is NPO during the perioperative period?
A. NPO except for metformin and regular snacks
B. NPO except for oral antidiabetic agent
C. Novolin N insulin subcutaneously twice daily
D. Regular insulin subcutaneously per sliding scale
Correct Answer
D.Regular insulin subcutaneously per sliding scale
Rationale:
Regular insulin dosing based on the client's blood glucose levels (sliding scale) is the best method to
achieve control of the client's blood glucose while the client is NPO and coping with the major stress of
surgery. Option A increases the risk of vomiting and aspiration. Options B and C provide less precise
control of the blood glucose level.
Page 1 of 37
,Question 3
14. The nurse is reviewing routine medications taken by a client with chronic angle-closure glaucoma. Which
medication prescription should the nurse question?
A. Antianginal with a therapeutic effect of vasodilation
B.Anticholinergic with a side effect of pupillary dilation
C. Antihistamine with a side effect of sedation
D. Corticosteroid with a side effect of hyperglycemia
Correct Answer
B. Anticholinergic with a side effect of pupillary dilation
Rationale:
Clients with angle-closure glaucoma should not take medications that dilate the pupil because this can
precipitate acute and severely increased intraocular pressure. Options A, C, and D do not cause increased
intracranial pressure, which is the primary concern with angle-closure glaucoma.
Question 4
29. The nurse is assessing a client who presents with jaundice. Which assessment finding is most important
for the nurse to follow up?
A. Urine specific gravity of 1.03
B. Frothy, tea-colored urine
C. Clay-colored stools
D. Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels
Correct Answer
D. Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels
Rationale:
Obstructive cholelithiasis and alcoholism are the two major causes of pancreatitis, and elevated serum
amylase and lipase levels indicate pancreatic injury. Option A is a normal finding. Options B and C are
expected findings related to jaundice.
Question 5
50. The nurse is completing an admission interview for a client with Parkinson disease. Which question will
provide additional information about manifestations that the client is likely to experience?
A. "Have you ever experienced any paralysis of your arms or legs?"
B. "Do you have frequent blackout spells?"
C."Have you ever been frozen in one spot, unable to move?"
D. "Do you have headaches, especially ones with throbbing pain?"
Correct Answer
C. Have you ever been frozen in one spot, unable to move?"
Rationale:
Clients with Parkinson disease frequently experience difficulty in initiating, maintaining, and performing
motor activities. They may even experience being rooted to the spot and unable to move. Parkinson
disease does not typically cause option A, B, or D.
Page 2 of 37
,Question 6
99. A female client who received a nephrotoxic drug is admitted with acute renal failure and asks the nurse
if she will need dialysis for the rest of her life. Which pathophysiologic consequence should the nurse
explain that supports the need for temporary dialysis until acute tubular necrosis subsides?
A. Azotemia
B. Oliguria
C.Hyperkalemia
D.Nephron obstruction
Correct Answer
D. Nephron obstruction
Rationale:
CKD is characterized by progressive and irreversible destruction of nephrons, frequently caused by
hypertension and diabetes mellitus. Nephrotoxins cause acute tubular necrosis, a reversible acute renal
failure, which creates renal tubular obstruction from endothelial cells that are sloughed or become
edematous. The obstruction of urine flow will resolve with the return of an adequate glomerular filtration
rate, and when it does, dialysis will no longer be needed. Options A, B, and C are manifestations seen in
the acute and chronic forms of kidney disease.
Question 7
66. During a health fair, a male client with emphysema tells the nurse that he fatigues easily. Assessment
reveals marked clubbing of the fingernails and an increased anteroposterior chest diameter. Which
instruction is best to provide the client?
A."Pace your activities and schedule rest periods."
B."Increase the amount of oxygen you use at night."
C."Obtain medical evaluation for antibiotic therapy."
D."Reduce your intake of fluids containing caffeine."
Correct Answer
A."Pace your activities and schedule rest periods."
Rationale:
Manifestations of emphysema include an increase in AP diameter (referred to as a barrel chest), nail bed
clubbing, and fatigue. The nurse can provide instructions to promote energy management, such as pacing
activities and scheduling rest periods. Option B may result in a decreased drive to breathe. The client is
not exhibiting any symptoms of infection, so option C is not necessary. Option D is less beneficial than
option A.
Question 8
41. Zolpidem tartrate, 1.75 mg PRN at bedtime, is prescribed for rest. The scored tablets are labeled 3.5 mg
per tablet. How many tablets should the nurse plan to administer?
A.½ tablet
B.1 tablet
C.1½ tablets
D.2 tablets
Correct Answer
A. ½ tablet
Rationale:
1.75 is ordered. 3.5 is available. 1.75/3.5 time one tab equlas 05. Or one half tablet. Options B, C, and D are
incorrect.
Page 3 of 37
, Question 9
35. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of severe acute diverticulitis. Which nursing
intervention has the highest priority?
A.Place the client on NPO status.
B. Assess the client's temperature.
C. Obtain a stool specimen.
D.Administer IV fluids.
Correct Answer
A.Place the client on NPO status.
Rationale:
A client with acute severe diverticulitis is at risk for peritonitis and intestinal obstruction and should be
made NPO to reduce risk of intestinal rupture. Options B, C, and D are important but are less of a priority
than option A, which is implemented to prevent a severe complication.
Question 10
43. A client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) 2 years ago is regularly treated at a community
hemodialysis facility. Before his scheduled dialysis treatment, which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse
anticipate?
A. Hypophosphatemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypokalemia
Correct Answer
B.Hypocalcemia
Rationale:
Hypocalcemia develops in CKD because of chronic hyperphosphatemia, not option A. Increased
phosphate levels cause the peripheral deposition of calcium and resistance to vitamin D absorption
needed for calcium absorption. Prior to dialysis, the nurse would expect to find the client hypernatremic
and hyperkalemic, not with option C or D.
Question 11
25. During report, the nurse learns that a client with tumor lysis syndrome is receiving an IV infusion
containing insulin. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?
A.Review the client's history for diabetes mellitus.
B.Observe the extremity distal to the IV site
C.Monitor the client's serum potassium and blood glucose levels.
D.Evaluate the client's oxygen saturation and breath sounds.
Correct Answer
C.Monitor the client's serum potassium and blood glucose levels.
Rationale:
Clients with tumor lysis syndrome may experience hyperkalemia, requiring the addition of insulin to the IV
solution to reduce the serum potassium level. It is most important for the nurse to monitor the client's
serum potassium and blood glucose levels to ensure that they are not at dangerous levels. Options A, B,
and D provide valuable assessment data but are of less priority than option C.
Page 4 of 37
100+ Questions and Verified Rationalized
Answers, 100% Guarantee Pass
100% Verified Passing Score Guaranteed Expert Rationales Included
Question 1
6. A client is being discharged following radioactive seed implantation for prostate cancer. What is the most
important information that the nurse should provide to this client's family?
A. Follow exposure precautions.
B. Encourage regular meals.
C. Collect all urine.
D. Avoid touching the client
Correct Answer
A.Follow exposure precautions.
Rationale:
Clients being treated for prostate cancer with radioactive seed implants should be instructed regarding
the amount of time and distance needed to prevent excessive exposure that would pose a hazard to
others. Option B is a good suggestion to promote adequate nutrition but is not as important as option A.
Option C is unnecessary. Contact with the client is permitted but should be brief to limit radiation
exposure
Question 2
18. A client with type 2 diabetes takes metformin (Glucophage) daily. The client is scheduled for major
surgery requiring general anesthesia the next day. The nurse anticipates which approach to manage the
client's diabetes best while the client is NPO during the perioperative period?
A. NPO except for metformin and regular snacks
B. NPO except for oral antidiabetic agent
C. Novolin N insulin subcutaneously twice daily
D. Regular insulin subcutaneously per sliding scale
Correct Answer
D.Regular insulin subcutaneously per sliding scale
Rationale:
Regular insulin dosing based on the client's blood glucose levels (sliding scale) is the best method to
achieve control of the client's blood glucose while the client is NPO and coping with the major stress of
surgery. Option A increases the risk of vomiting and aspiration. Options B and C provide less precise
control of the blood glucose level.
Page 1 of 37
,Question 3
14. The nurse is reviewing routine medications taken by a client with chronic angle-closure glaucoma. Which
medication prescription should the nurse question?
A. Antianginal with a therapeutic effect of vasodilation
B.Anticholinergic with a side effect of pupillary dilation
C. Antihistamine with a side effect of sedation
D. Corticosteroid with a side effect of hyperglycemia
Correct Answer
B. Anticholinergic with a side effect of pupillary dilation
Rationale:
Clients with angle-closure glaucoma should not take medications that dilate the pupil because this can
precipitate acute and severely increased intraocular pressure. Options A, C, and D do not cause increased
intracranial pressure, which is the primary concern with angle-closure glaucoma.
Question 4
29. The nurse is assessing a client who presents with jaundice. Which assessment finding is most important
for the nurse to follow up?
A. Urine specific gravity of 1.03
B. Frothy, tea-colored urine
C. Clay-colored stools
D. Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels
Correct Answer
D. Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels
Rationale:
Obstructive cholelithiasis and alcoholism are the two major causes of pancreatitis, and elevated serum
amylase and lipase levels indicate pancreatic injury. Option A is a normal finding. Options B and C are
expected findings related to jaundice.
Question 5
50. The nurse is completing an admission interview for a client with Parkinson disease. Which question will
provide additional information about manifestations that the client is likely to experience?
A. "Have you ever experienced any paralysis of your arms or legs?"
B. "Do you have frequent blackout spells?"
C."Have you ever been frozen in one spot, unable to move?"
D. "Do you have headaches, especially ones with throbbing pain?"
Correct Answer
C. Have you ever been frozen in one spot, unable to move?"
Rationale:
Clients with Parkinson disease frequently experience difficulty in initiating, maintaining, and performing
motor activities. They may even experience being rooted to the spot and unable to move. Parkinson
disease does not typically cause option A, B, or D.
Page 2 of 37
,Question 6
99. A female client who received a nephrotoxic drug is admitted with acute renal failure and asks the nurse
if she will need dialysis for the rest of her life. Which pathophysiologic consequence should the nurse
explain that supports the need for temporary dialysis until acute tubular necrosis subsides?
A. Azotemia
B. Oliguria
C.Hyperkalemia
D.Nephron obstruction
Correct Answer
D. Nephron obstruction
Rationale:
CKD is characterized by progressive and irreversible destruction of nephrons, frequently caused by
hypertension and diabetes mellitus. Nephrotoxins cause acute tubular necrosis, a reversible acute renal
failure, which creates renal tubular obstruction from endothelial cells that are sloughed or become
edematous. The obstruction of urine flow will resolve with the return of an adequate glomerular filtration
rate, and when it does, dialysis will no longer be needed. Options A, B, and C are manifestations seen in
the acute and chronic forms of kidney disease.
Question 7
66. During a health fair, a male client with emphysema tells the nurse that he fatigues easily. Assessment
reveals marked clubbing of the fingernails and an increased anteroposterior chest diameter. Which
instruction is best to provide the client?
A."Pace your activities and schedule rest periods."
B."Increase the amount of oxygen you use at night."
C."Obtain medical evaluation for antibiotic therapy."
D."Reduce your intake of fluids containing caffeine."
Correct Answer
A."Pace your activities and schedule rest periods."
Rationale:
Manifestations of emphysema include an increase in AP diameter (referred to as a barrel chest), nail bed
clubbing, and fatigue. The nurse can provide instructions to promote energy management, such as pacing
activities and scheduling rest periods. Option B may result in a decreased drive to breathe. The client is
not exhibiting any symptoms of infection, so option C is not necessary. Option D is less beneficial than
option A.
Question 8
41. Zolpidem tartrate, 1.75 mg PRN at bedtime, is prescribed for rest. The scored tablets are labeled 3.5 mg
per tablet. How many tablets should the nurse plan to administer?
A.½ tablet
B.1 tablet
C.1½ tablets
D.2 tablets
Correct Answer
A. ½ tablet
Rationale:
1.75 is ordered. 3.5 is available. 1.75/3.5 time one tab equlas 05. Or one half tablet. Options B, C, and D are
incorrect.
Page 3 of 37
, Question 9
35. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of severe acute diverticulitis. Which nursing
intervention has the highest priority?
A.Place the client on NPO status.
B. Assess the client's temperature.
C. Obtain a stool specimen.
D.Administer IV fluids.
Correct Answer
A.Place the client on NPO status.
Rationale:
A client with acute severe diverticulitis is at risk for peritonitis and intestinal obstruction and should be
made NPO to reduce risk of intestinal rupture. Options B, C, and D are important but are less of a priority
than option A, which is implemented to prevent a severe complication.
Question 10
43. A client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) 2 years ago is regularly treated at a community
hemodialysis facility. Before his scheduled dialysis treatment, which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse
anticipate?
A. Hypophosphatemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypokalemia
Correct Answer
B.Hypocalcemia
Rationale:
Hypocalcemia develops in CKD because of chronic hyperphosphatemia, not option A. Increased
phosphate levels cause the peripheral deposition of calcium and resistance to vitamin D absorption
needed for calcium absorption. Prior to dialysis, the nurse would expect to find the client hypernatremic
and hyperkalemic, not with option C or D.
Question 11
25. During report, the nurse learns that a client with tumor lysis syndrome is receiving an IV infusion
containing insulin. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?
A.Review the client's history for diabetes mellitus.
B.Observe the extremity distal to the IV site
C.Monitor the client's serum potassium and blood glucose levels.
D.Evaluate the client's oxygen saturation and breath sounds.
Correct Answer
C.Monitor the client's serum potassium and blood glucose levels.
Rationale:
Clients with tumor lysis syndrome may experience hyperkalemia, requiring the addition of insulin to the IV
solution to reduce the serum potassium level. It is most important for the nurse to monitor the client's
serum potassium and blood glucose levels to ensure that they are not at dangerous levels. Options A, B,
and D provide valuable assessment data but are of less priority than option C.
Page 4 of 37
