PEAT EXAM 1 2025 WITH ACTUAL CORRECT
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED
ANSWERS|FREQUENTLY TESTED
QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY
GRADED A+|NEWEST|LATEST
UPDATE|GUARANTEED PASS
1. In splinting or immobilization, the functional position of the hand includes wrist:
A. extension, phalangeal flexion, and thumb abduction
B. extension, phalangeal extension and thumb abduction
C. extension, phalangeal flexion and thumb adduction
D. flexion, phalangeal flexion and thumb adduction
A. The functional position of the wrist and hand describes the position from which the optimal
function is most likely to occur. This position is described as
a) slight wrist extension
b) slight ulnar deviationc) fingers flexed at the MCP, PIP & DIP joints and d) thumb slightly
abducted.
2. During pregnancy, which of the following is contraindicated?
A. curl-ups
B. bridging
C. double leg lifts
D. deep breathing with forced expiration
C. During pregnancy and postpartum period, the stretched abdominal muscles are unable to
stabilize the lower back, as the legs are raised. Attempting to perform double leg lifts can
overwork the abdominal muscle and cause damage to the spinal joints.
3. A target heart rate is determined for individual entering a training program in order to:
A. regulate exercise intensity
B. estimate energy expenditure
1|Page
,C. control blood pressure and specific heart rate
D. ensure participants exercise at maximal capacity
A. Exercise intensity can be expressed as O2 uptake during
activity. HR and O2 uptake have a relatively lower linear
relationship. Therefore, utilizing a target HR will ensure that the appropriate exercise intensity is
being achieved. Estimation of energy expenditure requires measurement of O2 consumption
that is then calculated into calories metabolized during the activity. BP cannot be controlled at
specific HR. Exercising at maximal capacity does not achieve aerobic training benefits and is
unsafe for the majority of patient population.
4. A herniated nucleus pulposus at the L3-L4 disc produces which of the following clinical
findings?
A. Numbness in the back of the calf and dorsiflexor weakness
B. Numbness in the anteromedial thigh and knee and
quadriceps weakness
C. Numbness and weakness in the thigh, legs, feet and/or perineum
D. Numbness in the back of the calf and atrophy of
gastrocnemius and soleus
B. Pressure on the L3 L4 root causes numbness in the anteromedial thigh and knee and quads
weakness. Numbness in the back of the calf and dorsiflexor weakness is indicative of L4, L5 and
S1 nerve root involvement. Numbness and weakness in the thighs, legs and feet and perineum
is indicative of L2 through S1 nerve root involvement. Numbness in theback of the calf and
atrophy of gastrocsoleus is indicative of the S1 nerve root involvement.
5. The intervention for a patient with limitation of shoulder flexion and medial rotation includes
mobilization. Which glide is the-most appropriate for mobilizing this shoulder to specifically
increase the restricted motion?
A. Posterior
B. Anterior
C. Medial
D. Lateral
A. The most appropriate mobilization technique for increasing both shoulder flexion and medial
rotation would be posterior (dorsal) glide. Lateral glide may be used as a general joint
distraction technique. Medial glide would not be appropriate to increase flexion and medial
rotation. Anterior glide is used to increase extension and lateral rotation.
6. Which of the following techniques is MOST appropriate for a patient with low postural tone?
A. Slow regular rocking while sitting on the treatment bolster
2|Page
,B. Continuous pressure to the skin overlying the back muscle
C. Low frequency vibration to the back muscle
D. Joint approximation applied through the shoulder to the
trunk
D. Options A, B & C are techniques used to decrease postural tone, which is not indicated for
this patient. Option D is the most appropriate technique for improving low postural tone.
7. Which skin change associated with aging has the GREATEST effect on wound healing?
A. Reduction in sensation
B. Decrease elasticity of the skin
C. Decrease epidermal proliferation
D. Change in pigmentation
C. Wounds heal via a complex process involving re- epithelialization. With advanced aging, the
rate of epidermal proliferation decreases.
8. Which of the following techniques is MOST effective in teaching an IDDM patient about foot
care?
A. Reassure the patient that no infection will occur if the directions are followed, then
demonstrate procedure
B. Tell patient how foot care is performed, then watch patient's performance
C. Watch patient perform foot inspection and caution him that amputation results from
unattended skin problems
D. Have the patient demonstrate a foot inspection, then give feedback on patient's performance
D. Learning the process of foot care is a psychomotor skill and effective strategies to teach
psychomotor skills include repeat demonstration by the patient of the skill followed by feedback
from the therapist to highlight what was performed correctly and what areas need
improvement. Reassurance about prevention of infection with proper foot care would primarily
be a cognitive skill and does not ensure that the patient can effectively perform proper foot
care. Options B & C do not include feedback that informs the patient about their performance.
9. For a child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, the MOSTappropriate rehabilitation goal
would be:
A. prevention of contractures and determine method of
mobility
B. preservation of strength and muscle tone
C. inhibition of abnormal tone and facilitation of normal
movement and position reaction
3|Page
, D. facilitation of normal movement and improvement of
strength
A. Goals of PT intervention for a child with DMD are to retard the development of contracture
and muscle weakness, which could lead to functional limitations and thus disability. The PT
would also play a role in determining the appropriate use of assistive devices that could help
maintain the child's mobilitysuch as wheelchairs, walkers and orthoses. Muscle tone changes
and decline in strength cannot be prevented since they are results of the disease process.
10. A patient with complete long thoracic nerve injury would have difficulty in:
A. putting hand in the back pocket.
B. bending toward the involved side.
C. taking a deep breath.
D. reaching forward above head.
D. The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle. Reaching forward above the
head (shoulder flexion) would require the action of serratus anterior, and long thoracic nerve
injury would affect the motion. The serratus anterior muscle also works in conjunction with the
upper and lower trapezius muscle to upwardly rotate the scapula (abduct) during shoulder
flexion. Putting the hand in the back pocket would require scapular adduction. Side bending and
deep breathing would not require scapular motion.
11. Outcomes of prenatal exercise program would not include: A. improved body mechanics
B. application of relaxation technique
C. improve ligament flexibility
D. strengthen pelvic floor musculature
C. During pregnancy, the ligaments soften due to hormonal influences and allow some degree of
separation between joint surfaces. Additional stretching of the ligaments would result in joint
instability or injury, and would not be a goal of treatment.
The remaining options are all appropriate interventions.
12. Utilization review and peer review are activities that are part of a comprehensive:
A. policy and procedure manual
B. quality improvement program
C. audit cycle
D. performance evaluation
B. According to the Standards of PT Practice, there should be a written plan of continuous
improvement of quality of care. This includes ongoing review and evaluation of the PT services
provided. Utilization and peer review are two types of review processes.
4|Page
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED
ANSWERS|FREQUENTLY TESTED
QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY
GRADED A+|NEWEST|LATEST
UPDATE|GUARANTEED PASS
1. In splinting or immobilization, the functional position of the hand includes wrist:
A. extension, phalangeal flexion, and thumb abduction
B. extension, phalangeal extension and thumb abduction
C. extension, phalangeal flexion and thumb adduction
D. flexion, phalangeal flexion and thumb adduction
A. The functional position of the wrist and hand describes the position from which the optimal
function is most likely to occur. This position is described as
a) slight wrist extension
b) slight ulnar deviationc) fingers flexed at the MCP, PIP & DIP joints and d) thumb slightly
abducted.
2. During pregnancy, which of the following is contraindicated?
A. curl-ups
B. bridging
C. double leg lifts
D. deep breathing with forced expiration
C. During pregnancy and postpartum period, the stretched abdominal muscles are unable to
stabilize the lower back, as the legs are raised. Attempting to perform double leg lifts can
overwork the abdominal muscle and cause damage to the spinal joints.
3. A target heart rate is determined for individual entering a training program in order to:
A. regulate exercise intensity
B. estimate energy expenditure
1|Page
,C. control blood pressure and specific heart rate
D. ensure participants exercise at maximal capacity
A. Exercise intensity can be expressed as O2 uptake during
activity. HR and O2 uptake have a relatively lower linear
relationship. Therefore, utilizing a target HR will ensure that the appropriate exercise intensity is
being achieved. Estimation of energy expenditure requires measurement of O2 consumption
that is then calculated into calories metabolized during the activity. BP cannot be controlled at
specific HR. Exercising at maximal capacity does not achieve aerobic training benefits and is
unsafe for the majority of patient population.
4. A herniated nucleus pulposus at the L3-L4 disc produces which of the following clinical
findings?
A. Numbness in the back of the calf and dorsiflexor weakness
B. Numbness in the anteromedial thigh and knee and
quadriceps weakness
C. Numbness and weakness in the thigh, legs, feet and/or perineum
D. Numbness in the back of the calf and atrophy of
gastrocnemius and soleus
B. Pressure on the L3 L4 root causes numbness in the anteromedial thigh and knee and quads
weakness. Numbness in the back of the calf and dorsiflexor weakness is indicative of L4, L5 and
S1 nerve root involvement. Numbness and weakness in the thighs, legs and feet and perineum
is indicative of L2 through S1 nerve root involvement. Numbness in theback of the calf and
atrophy of gastrocsoleus is indicative of the S1 nerve root involvement.
5. The intervention for a patient with limitation of shoulder flexion and medial rotation includes
mobilization. Which glide is the-most appropriate for mobilizing this shoulder to specifically
increase the restricted motion?
A. Posterior
B. Anterior
C. Medial
D. Lateral
A. The most appropriate mobilization technique for increasing both shoulder flexion and medial
rotation would be posterior (dorsal) glide. Lateral glide may be used as a general joint
distraction technique. Medial glide would not be appropriate to increase flexion and medial
rotation. Anterior glide is used to increase extension and lateral rotation.
6. Which of the following techniques is MOST appropriate for a patient with low postural tone?
A. Slow regular rocking while sitting on the treatment bolster
2|Page
,B. Continuous pressure to the skin overlying the back muscle
C. Low frequency vibration to the back muscle
D. Joint approximation applied through the shoulder to the
trunk
D. Options A, B & C are techniques used to decrease postural tone, which is not indicated for
this patient. Option D is the most appropriate technique for improving low postural tone.
7. Which skin change associated with aging has the GREATEST effect on wound healing?
A. Reduction in sensation
B. Decrease elasticity of the skin
C. Decrease epidermal proliferation
D. Change in pigmentation
C. Wounds heal via a complex process involving re- epithelialization. With advanced aging, the
rate of epidermal proliferation decreases.
8. Which of the following techniques is MOST effective in teaching an IDDM patient about foot
care?
A. Reassure the patient that no infection will occur if the directions are followed, then
demonstrate procedure
B. Tell patient how foot care is performed, then watch patient's performance
C. Watch patient perform foot inspection and caution him that amputation results from
unattended skin problems
D. Have the patient demonstrate a foot inspection, then give feedback on patient's performance
D. Learning the process of foot care is a psychomotor skill and effective strategies to teach
psychomotor skills include repeat demonstration by the patient of the skill followed by feedback
from the therapist to highlight what was performed correctly and what areas need
improvement. Reassurance about prevention of infection with proper foot care would primarily
be a cognitive skill and does not ensure that the patient can effectively perform proper foot
care. Options B & C do not include feedback that informs the patient about their performance.
9. For a child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, the MOSTappropriate rehabilitation goal
would be:
A. prevention of contractures and determine method of
mobility
B. preservation of strength and muscle tone
C. inhibition of abnormal tone and facilitation of normal
movement and position reaction
3|Page
, D. facilitation of normal movement and improvement of
strength
A. Goals of PT intervention for a child with DMD are to retard the development of contracture
and muscle weakness, which could lead to functional limitations and thus disability. The PT
would also play a role in determining the appropriate use of assistive devices that could help
maintain the child's mobilitysuch as wheelchairs, walkers and orthoses. Muscle tone changes
and decline in strength cannot be prevented since they are results of the disease process.
10. A patient with complete long thoracic nerve injury would have difficulty in:
A. putting hand in the back pocket.
B. bending toward the involved side.
C. taking a deep breath.
D. reaching forward above head.
D. The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle. Reaching forward above the
head (shoulder flexion) would require the action of serratus anterior, and long thoracic nerve
injury would affect the motion. The serratus anterior muscle also works in conjunction with the
upper and lower trapezius muscle to upwardly rotate the scapula (abduct) during shoulder
flexion. Putting the hand in the back pocket would require scapular adduction. Side bending and
deep breathing would not require scapular motion.
11. Outcomes of prenatal exercise program would not include: A. improved body mechanics
B. application of relaxation technique
C. improve ligament flexibility
D. strengthen pelvic floor musculature
C. During pregnancy, the ligaments soften due to hormonal influences and allow some degree of
separation between joint surfaces. Additional stretching of the ligaments would result in joint
instability or injury, and would not be a goal of treatment.
The remaining options are all appropriate interventions.
12. Utilization review and peer review are activities that are part of a comprehensive:
A. policy and procedure manual
B. quality improvement program
C. audit cycle
D. performance evaluation
B. According to the Standards of PT Practice, there should be a written plan of continuous
improvement of quality of care. This includes ongoing review and evaluation of the PT services
provided. Utilization and peer review are two types of review processes.
4|Page
