CERTIFICATE
Actual Questions and Answers
Expert-Verified Explanation
This Exam contains:
✪ Multiple-choice and True/False Format
✪ Expert-Verified Explanations
✪ Verified with Trusted Textbooks
Question 1: What does the cell cycle refer to?
A) Cellular aging and death
B) Movement of antibodies through the bloodstream
C) Ordered series of processes for DNA replication and mitosis
D) Cytokine and antigen interactions
Answer: C
EXPLANATION: The cell cycle encompasses DNA replication and mitosis that produce two identical
daughter cells.
Question 2: During interphase, which phase involves DNA replication?
A) G1 phase
B) S phase
C) M phase
D) G0 phase
Answer: B
EXPLANATION: The S phase is where DNA is replicated, forming identical chromatids attached at the
centromere.
Question 3: What is the purpose of the G1 phase in the cell cycle?
A) DNA synthesis
B) Cell division
C) Growth and RNA production
D) Apoptosis
Answer: C
EXPLANATION: In G1, cells increase in size, reproduce RNA, and prepare for DNA synthesis.
Question 4: What checkpoint controls the transition from resting to dividing state in the cell cycle?
A) G0
B) S phase
C) Restriction point
D) M phase
Answer: C
,EXPLANATION: The restriction point determines whether a cell progresses from resting into active
division.
Question 5: Which phase follows mitosis if the cell does not reenter the cycle immediately?
A) G2
B) G1
C) G0
D) S
Answer: C
EXPLANATION: G0 is a resting phase where cells may remain metabolically active but not dividing.
Question 6: Which cells are an exception and do not typically rest in G0 phase?
A) Cardiac muscle cells
B) Neurons
C) Granulocytes
D) Osteocytes
Answer: C
EXPLANATION: Granulocytes and GI tract epithelial cells are actively dividing and rarely rest in G0.
Question 7: What is the role of cyclins and CDKs in the cell cycle?
A) Halt apoptosis
B) Guide DNA repair
C) Allow cell progression through the cycle
D) Activate immune cells
Answer: C
EXPLANATION: Cyclins bind to CDKs to regulate phase transitions in the cell cycle.
Question 8: What happens when DNA damage is detected in a cell?
A) Cell divides faster
B) Cell produces new mitochondria
C) Division halts or apoptosis begins
D) Cytokines activate T-cells
Answer: C
EXPLANATION: Cells pause division to allow DNA repair or undergo programmed cell death if the
damage is severe.
Question 9: What protein is often referred to as the “suicide gene” due to its role in DNA damage
control?
A) Rb
B) CDK1
C) p53
, D) IL-10
Answer: C
EXPLANATION: p53 regulates genes that control apoptosis and cell cycle arrest in response to DNA
damage.
Question 10: What is the main checkpoint before a cell divides?
A) G1 checkpoint
B) S checkpoint
C) M phase checkpoint
D) G0 checkpoint
Answer: C
EXPLANATION: The M phase checkpoint ensures chromosomes are properly aligned before division
proceeds.
Question 11: What are pluripotent stem cells capable of becoming?
A) Any cell type including placental
B) Red blood cells only
C) Any body cell except extraembryonic tissues
D) Mature lymphocytes only
Answer: C
EXPLANATION: Pluripotent stem cells can differentiate into nearly any cell except placental tissues.
Question 12: What do myeloid precursor cells mature into?
A) Plasma cells
B) Lymphocytes
C) RBCs, platelets, and granulocytes
D) Dendritic cells
Answer: C
EXPLANATION: These precursors generate major blood components such as RBCs and granulocytes.
Question 13: Which immune cells come from lymphoid precursors?
A) Monocytes and eosinophils
B) Lymphocytes (B and T cells)
C) Platelets and neutrophils
D) Macrophages and basophils
Answer: B
EXPLANATION: Lymphoid progenitors develop into lymphocytes: B-cells, T-cells, and NK cells.
Question 14: What defines innate immunity?
A) Retains memory
B) Requires antigen-presenting cells