HESI COMPASS COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAM
2025/2026 AND PRACTICE EXAM TEST BANK
WITH A STUDY GUIDE | ALL VERSIONS OF THE
EXAM WITH ALL MODULES COVERED BEST
ACCURATE, CORRECT AND VERIFIED
QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS FOR
GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST VERIFIED
UPDATE.
The nurse working in the psychiatric clinic has phone
messages from several clients. Which call should the nurse
return first?
A young man with schizophrenia who wants to stop taking
his medications.
The mother of a child who was involved in a physical fight
at school today.
A client diagnosed with depression who is experiencing
sexual dysfunction.
A family member of a client with dementia who has been
missing for five hours.
A family member of a client with dementia who has been
missing for five hours.
Rationale:
Safety is always the priority concern, and the family
1
,member of the missing client with dementia needs
assistance with contacting authorities as well as
psychological support during this time.
The nurse is conducting a visual screening of a group of
older adults. Which finding should the nurse report to the
healthcare provider immediately?
Cloudy opacity of the crystalline lens.
Gradual onset of continuous eye pain and blurred vision.
Recent change in the ability to read and drive after dark.
Gray-white circle around the iris of both eyes.
Gradual onset of continuous eye pain and blurred vision.
Rationale:
The onset of eye pain and blurred vision may indicate
closed-angle glaucoma, which requires immediate medical
intervention.
A female client who is admitted to the mental health unit
for opiate dependency is receiving clonidine 0.1 mg PO for
withdrawal symptoms. The client begins to complain of
feeling nervous and tells the nurse that her bones are
itching. Which finding should the nurse identify as a
contraindication for administering the medication?
Muscle weakness.
Apical heart rate 72 beats/minute.
Hypertension.
Blood pressure 90/76 mm Hg.
2
,Blood pressure 90/76 mm Hg.
Rationale:
Clonidine, an alpha adrenergic blocking agent used to treat
hypertension, is also administered for symptoms related to
opiate withdrawal. If a client's systolic blood pressure is
less than 90 mm Hg, the medication should not be given.
A mother brings her 4-month-old son to the clinic with a
quarter taped over his umbilicus, and tells the nurse the
quarter is supposed to fix her child's hernia. Which
explanation should the nurse provide?
This hernia is a normal variation that resolves without
treatment.
Restrictive clothing will be adequate to help the hernia go
away.
An abdominal binder can be worn daily to reduce the
protrusion.
The quarter should be secured with an elastic bandage
wrap.
This hernia is a normal variation that resolves without
treatment.
3
, Rationale:
An umbilical hernia is a normal variation in infants that
occurs due to an incomplete fusion of the abdominal
musculature through the umbilical ring that usually
resolves spontaneously as the child learns to walk.
A young adult female presents at the emergency center
with acute lower abdominal pain. Which assessment
finding is most important for the nurse to report to the
healthcare provider?
Pain scale rating of a "9" on a 0 to10 scale.
Last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago.
Reports white, curdy vaginal discharge.
History of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS).
Last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago.
Rationale:
Acute lower abdominal pain in a young adult female can
be indicative of an ectopic pregnancy, which can be life-
threatening. Since the client's last menstrual period was 7
weeks ago, a pregnancy test should be obtained to rule out
ectopic pregnancy, which can result in intra-abdominal
hemorrhage caused by a ruptured fallopian tube.
4
2025/2026 AND PRACTICE EXAM TEST BANK
WITH A STUDY GUIDE | ALL VERSIONS OF THE
EXAM WITH ALL MODULES COVERED BEST
ACCURATE, CORRECT AND VERIFIED
QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS FOR
GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST VERIFIED
UPDATE.
The nurse working in the psychiatric clinic has phone
messages from several clients. Which call should the nurse
return first?
A young man with schizophrenia who wants to stop taking
his medications.
The mother of a child who was involved in a physical fight
at school today.
A client diagnosed with depression who is experiencing
sexual dysfunction.
A family member of a client with dementia who has been
missing for five hours.
A family member of a client with dementia who has been
missing for five hours.
Rationale:
Safety is always the priority concern, and the family
1
,member of the missing client with dementia needs
assistance with contacting authorities as well as
psychological support during this time.
The nurse is conducting a visual screening of a group of
older adults. Which finding should the nurse report to the
healthcare provider immediately?
Cloudy opacity of the crystalline lens.
Gradual onset of continuous eye pain and blurred vision.
Recent change in the ability to read and drive after dark.
Gray-white circle around the iris of both eyes.
Gradual onset of continuous eye pain and blurred vision.
Rationale:
The onset of eye pain and blurred vision may indicate
closed-angle glaucoma, which requires immediate medical
intervention.
A female client who is admitted to the mental health unit
for opiate dependency is receiving clonidine 0.1 mg PO for
withdrawal symptoms. The client begins to complain of
feeling nervous and tells the nurse that her bones are
itching. Which finding should the nurse identify as a
contraindication for administering the medication?
Muscle weakness.
Apical heart rate 72 beats/minute.
Hypertension.
Blood pressure 90/76 mm Hg.
2
,Blood pressure 90/76 mm Hg.
Rationale:
Clonidine, an alpha adrenergic blocking agent used to treat
hypertension, is also administered for symptoms related to
opiate withdrawal. If a client's systolic blood pressure is
less than 90 mm Hg, the medication should not be given.
A mother brings her 4-month-old son to the clinic with a
quarter taped over his umbilicus, and tells the nurse the
quarter is supposed to fix her child's hernia. Which
explanation should the nurse provide?
This hernia is a normal variation that resolves without
treatment.
Restrictive clothing will be adequate to help the hernia go
away.
An abdominal binder can be worn daily to reduce the
protrusion.
The quarter should be secured with an elastic bandage
wrap.
This hernia is a normal variation that resolves without
treatment.
3
, Rationale:
An umbilical hernia is a normal variation in infants that
occurs due to an incomplete fusion of the abdominal
musculature through the umbilical ring that usually
resolves spontaneously as the child learns to walk.
A young adult female presents at the emergency center
with acute lower abdominal pain. Which assessment
finding is most important for the nurse to report to the
healthcare provider?
Pain scale rating of a "9" on a 0 to10 scale.
Last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago.
Reports white, curdy vaginal discharge.
History of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS).
Last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago.
Rationale:
Acute lower abdominal pain in a young adult female can
be indicative of an ectopic pregnancy, which can be life-
threatening. Since the client's last menstrual period was 7
weeks ago, a pregnancy test should be obtained to rule out
ectopic pregnancy, which can result in intra-abdominal
hemorrhage caused by a ruptured fallopian tube.
4
