1. A client uses sublingual nitroglycerin. Which instruction
is
correct?
A. Swallow the pill with water
B. Take up to 3 doses, 5 minutes apart
C. Store it in a warm area
D. Use it once weekly
Answer: B
Rationale: For chest pain, take 1 tablet every 5 minutes, up
to 3
doses, and call 911 if no relief after the first.
2. A client with asthma uses albuterol PRN. Which
statement
shows proper understanding?
A. “I use this every morning and night.”
B. “I use this when I’m having shortness of breath.”
C. “I use it with my steroid inhaler at the same time.”
D. “I use this even if I’m not having symptoms.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol is a rescue inhaler used during asthma
attacks
or acute symptoms.
3. A client taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis develops
numbness and tingling in their hands and feet. What should
the
nurse anticipate?
A. The need for increased calcium
B. Administration of pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
C. Discontinuation of therapy
D. Addition of prednisone
Answer: B
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy, often
prevented or treated with vitamin B6.
4. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
5. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
, What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry
mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
6. A client is prescribed loperamide. Which condition is a
contraindication?
A. IBS
B. Infectious diarrhea
C. Traveler’s diarrhea
D. Post-antibiotic diarrhea
Answer: B
Rationale: Do not use antidiarrheals in infectious diarrhea,
as it
may retain toxins in the bowel.
7. A client is receiving morphine IV post-op. Which finding
is the
priority?
A. Nausea
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Itching
D. Sedation score of 2
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression (<12/min) is the most life
threatening side effect of opioids.
8. A client taking carbidopa/levodopa reports facial
twitching
and eye spasms. What should the nurse do?
A. Reassure the client this is expected
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Administer diphenhydramine
D. Document and continue monitoring
Answer: B
Rationale: Facial twitching and spasms are signs of toxicity.
Notify
the provider to adjust dosage.
9. A client with herpes simplex is prescribed acyclovir.
What is the
most important teaching?
A. "Take on an empty stomach."
B. "Drink plenty of fluids."
C. "Discontinue when symptoms improve."
is
correct?
A. Swallow the pill with water
B. Take up to 3 doses, 5 minutes apart
C. Store it in a warm area
D. Use it once weekly
Answer: B
Rationale: For chest pain, take 1 tablet every 5 minutes, up
to 3
doses, and call 911 if no relief after the first.
2. A client with asthma uses albuterol PRN. Which
statement
shows proper understanding?
A. “I use this every morning and night.”
B. “I use this when I’m having shortness of breath.”
C. “I use it with my steroid inhaler at the same time.”
D. “I use this even if I’m not having symptoms.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol is a rescue inhaler used during asthma
attacks
or acute symptoms.
3. A client taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis develops
numbness and tingling in their hands and feet. What should
the
nurse anticipate?
A. The need for increased calcium
B. Administration of pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
C. Discontinuation of therapy
D. Addition of prednisone
Answer: B
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy, often
prevented or treated with vitamin B6.
4. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
5. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
, What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry
mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
6. A client is prescribed loperamide. Which condition is a
contraindication?
A. IBS
B. Infectious diarrhea
C. Traveler’s diarrhea
D. Post-antibiotic diarrhea
Answer: B
Rationale: Do not use antidiarrheals in infectious diarrhea,
as it
may retain toxins in the bowel.
7. A client is receiving morphine IV post-op. Which finding
is the
priority?
A. Nausea
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Itching
D. Sedation score of 2
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression (<12/min) is the most life
threatening side effect of opioids.
8. A client taking carbidopa/levodopa reports facial
twitching
and eye spasms. What should the nurse do?
A. Reassure the client this is expected
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Administer diphenhydramine
D. Document and continue monitoring
Answer: B
Rationale: Facial twitching and spasms are signs of toxicity.
Notify
the provider to adjust dosage.
9. A client with herpes simplex is prescribed acyclovir.
What is the
most important teaching?
A. "Take on an empty stomach."
B. "Drink plenty of fluids."
C. "Discontinue when symptoms improve."
