1. Which statement indicates proper understanding of
enoxaparin (Lovenox) administration?
A. “I will inject it into my thigh muscle.”
B. “I will rub the site after injection.”
C. “I will inject it into my belly fat.”
D. “I must monitor my INR daily.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Enoxaparin is given subcutaneously, preferably
in the
abdomen, and INR monitoring is not required.
2. A client on sertraline reports increased restlessness
and
confusion. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Extrapyramidal symptoms
B. Lithium toxicity
C. Serotonin syndrome
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Answer: C
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome includes agitation,
confusion,
tachycardia, and hyperreflexia.
3. A client prescribed clopidogrel should avoid which overthe
counter medication?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Famotidine
D. Guaifenesin
Answer: B
Rationale: NSAIDs like ibuprofen increase bleeding risk
when
combined with antiplatelet agents like clopidogrel.
4. A client is started on lorazepam for anxiety. Which
teaching
point is essential?
A. “Avoid grapefruit juice.”
B. “Take with NSAIDs.”
C. “Do not stop abruptly.”
D. “It may take weeks to work.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines must be tapered to prevent
withdrawal symptoms and seizures.
5. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
, B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry
mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
6. A client taking haloperidol develops a high fever and
muscle
rigidity. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics.
Requires immediate intervention.
7. A post-op client is given ondansetron. Which is an
expected
outcome?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Absence of nausea
C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Sedation
Answer: B
Rationale: Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist used to
prevent
or treat nausea and vomiting.
8. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
9. A client is prescribed exenatide. What is a common side
effect?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Constipation
C. Nausea
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Exenatide can cause nausea, especially when
enoxaparin (Lovenox) administration?
A. “I will inject it into my thigh muscle.”
B. “I will rub the site after injection.”
C. “I will inject it into my belly fat.”
D. “I must monitor my INR daily.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Enoxaparin is given subcutaneously, preferably
in the
abdomen, and INR monitoring is not required.
2. A client on sertraline reports increased restlessness
and
confusion. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Extrapyramidal symptoms
B. Lithium toxicity
C. Serotonin syndrome
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Answer: C
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome includes agitation,
confusion,
tachycardia, and hyperreflexia.
3. A client prescribed clopidogrel should avoid which overthe
counter medication?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Famotidine
D. Guaifenesin
Answer: B
Rationale: NSAIDs like ibuprofen increase bleeding risk
when
combined with antiplatelet agents like clopidogrel.
4. A client is started on lorazepam for anxiety. Which
teaching
point is essential?
A. “Avoid grapefruit juice.”
B. “Take with NSAIDs.”
C. “Do not stop abruptly.”
D. “It may take weeks to work.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines must be tapered to prevent
withdrawal symptoms and seizures.
5. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
, B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry
mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
6. A client taking haloperidol develops a high fever and
muscle
rigidity. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics.
Requires immediate intervention.
7. A post-op client is given ondansetron. Which is an
expected
outcome?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Absence of nausea
C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Sedation
Answer: B
Rationale: Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist used to
prevent
or treat nausea and vomiting.
8. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
9. A client is prescribed exenatide. What is a common side
effect?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Constipation
C. Nausea
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Exenatide can cause nausea, especially when
