ESTUDYR
NCC-MATERNAL NEWBORN STUDY UPDATED EXAM WITH MOST
TESTED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | GRADED A+ | ASSURED SUCCESS
WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
1. A woman with a BMI of 18 gains 25 lbs during her pregnancy. This pregnancy is at increased risk for:
a. Cesarean delivery
b. Delivery of a low birthweight infant
c. Preeclampsia
d. Preterm labor
Answer: b. Delivery of a low birthweight infant
Rationale: A BMI of 18 indicates underweight status, and insufficient weight gain can lead to delivery of
a low birthweight infant due to inadequate fetal growth.
2. During pregnancy, which cardiovascular parameter increases by 60%?
a. Blood volume
b. Plasma volume
c. Red cell mass
d. Stroke volume
Answer: b. Plasma volume
Rationale: Plasma volume increases by approximately 50-60% during pregnancy to accommodate
increased circulatory demands and to ensure adequate placental perfusion.
3. A woman with epilepsy has a higher risk of seizures during pregnancy at which time?
a. During labor through 24 hours postpartum
b. From 72 hours to 1 week postpartum
c. In the third trimester
d. In the first trimester
Answer: a. During labor through 24 hours postpartum
Rationale: Physiological stress during labor and the immediate postpartum period can trigger seizures in
women with epilepsy.
4. The risk of developing diabetes in women with a history of gestational diabetes is:
,ESTUDYR
a. Increased only if there are multiple diabetes risk factors
b. Increased with onset within 10-15 years in about 50% of those women
c. The same as women without gestational diabetes
d. Reduced by breastfeeding
Answer: b. Increased with onset within 10-15 years in about 50% of those women
Rationale: Gestational diabetes significantly increases the long-term risk of type 2 diabetes, particularly
within 10-15 years postpartum.
5. A woman receives magnesium sulfate during labor for gestational hypertension. What effect can
this have on the newborn?
a. Elevated cortisol levels
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Muscle weakness
d. Jaundice
Answer: c. Muscle weakness
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate crosses the placenta and may cause transient hypotonia and muscle
weakness in the newborn.
6. A pregnant woman with varicella-zoster at 32 weeks gestation is now in active labor at 40 weeks.
What is the appropriate intervention?
a. Administer zoster immunoglobulin to the newborn at delivery
b. Administer zoster immunoglobulin to the mother before delivery
c. No action is needed as the mother’s antibodies are protective
d. Isolate the newborn for 2 weeks postpartum
Answer: c. No action is needed as the mother’s antibodies are protective
Rationale: Maternal antibodies are transferred to the fetus during pregnancy and provide immunity to
the newborn.
7. To reduce the risk of fetal death to that of a non-smoker, a pregnant woman must quit smoking by:
a. Before pregnancy occurs
b. By the end of the first trimester
c. By the end of the second trimester
d. By the third trimester
,ESTUDYR
Answer: b. By the end of the first trimester
Rationale: Quitting smoking by the end of the first trimester significantly reduces the risk of
complications and aligns outcomes with those of non-smokers.
8. A patient in preterm labor at 30 weeks received indomethacin. The newborn should be observed
for:
a. Duodenal atresia
b. Hirschsprung disease
c. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
d. Persistent pulmonary hypertension
Answer: c. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
Rationale: Indomethacin use in preterm labor may reduce fetal renal perfusion, increasing the risk of
NEC in preterm infants.
9. What are the characteristics of a dizygotic pregnancy?
a. One placenta and one amniotic sac
b. One placenta and two amniotic sacs
c. Two placentas and two amniotic sacs
d. Two placentas and one amniotic sac
Answer: c. Two placentas and two amniotic sacs
Rationale: Dizygotic twins result from two separate eggs and sperm, leading to two placentas and two
amniotic sacs.
10. A woman is diagnosed with oligohydramnios during her pregnancy. The fetus/newborn should be
evaluated for:
a. Diabetes insipidus
b. Klippel-Feil syndrome
c. Polycystic kidney disease
d. Hydrocephalus
Answer: c. Polycystic kidney disease
Rationale: Oligohydramnios can result from renal anomalies like polycystic kidney disease, which
impairs fetal urine production.
, ESTUDYR
11. A fetus at 36 weeks receives a biophysical profile (BPP) score of 6. What is the expected
management?
a. Immediate delivery
b. Repeat BPP in 24 hours
c. Schedule the next test in one week
d. Administer corticosteroids for fetal lung maturity
Answer: b. Repeat BPP in 24 hours
Rationale: A score of 6 warrants close monitoring, and repeating the BPP within 24 hours helps assess
fetal well-being.
12. A postpartum woman’s prenatal history shows a lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:0. What
does this indicate?
a. A PG (phosphatidylglycerol) test is needed
b. The lungs are mature, and delivery will occur
c. The lungs are still immature, and the test will be repeated in one week
d. Immediate corticosteroids are required
Answer: b. The lungs are mature, and delivery will occur
Rationale: An L/S ratio ≥2:0 indicates fetal lung maturity, and the fetus can be safely delivered.
13. Which of the following is a limitation of the alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test?
a. Closed neural tube defects are not detected
b. It will not detect Down syndrome
c. Its best sensitivity is at 20 weeks
d. It is only performed in high-risk pregnancies
Answer: a. Closed neural tube defects are not detected
Rationale: AFP testing detects open neural tube defects but not closed ones, limiting its diagnostic
scope.
14. A postpartum woman’s quad screen shows low MSAFP and high HCG and inhibin A. What
diagnosis is expected for the newborn?
a. Neural tube defect
b. Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
NCC-MATERNAL NEWBORN STUDY UPDATED EXAM WITH MOST
TESTED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | GRADED A+ | ASSURED SUCCESS
WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
1. A woman with a BMI of 18 gains 25 lbs during her pregnancy. This pregnancy is at increased risk for:
a. Cesarean delivery
b. Delivery of a low birthweight infant
c. Preeclampsia
d. Preterm labor
Answer: b. Delivery of a low birthweight infant
Rationale: A BMI of 18 indicates underweight status, and insufficient weight gain can lead to delivery of
a low birthweight infant due to inadequate fetal growth.
2. During pregnancy, which cardiovascular parameter increases by 60%?
a. Blood volume
b. Plasma volume
c. Red cell mass
d. Stroke volume
Answer: b. Plasma volume
Rationale: Plasma volume increases by approximately 50-60% during pregnancy to accommodate
increased circulatory demands and to ensure adequate placental perfusion.
3. A woman with epilepsy has a higher risk of seizures during pregnancy at which time?
a. During labor through 24 hours postpartum
b. From 72 hours to 1 week postpartum
c. In the third trimester
d. In the first trimester
Answer: a. During labor through 24 hours postpartum
Rationale: Physiological stress during labor and the immediate postpartum period can trigger seizures in
women with epilepsy.
4. The risk of developing diabetes in women with a history of gestational diabetes is:
,ESTUDYR
a. Increased only if there are multiple diabetes risk factors
b. Increased with onset within 10-15 years in about 50% of those women
c. The same as women without gestational diabetes
d. Reduced by breastfeeding
Answer: b. Increased with onset within 10-15 years in about 50% of those women
Rationale: Gestational diabetes significantly increases the long-term risk of type 2 diabetes, particularly
within 10-15 years postpartum.
5. A woman receives magnesium sulfate during labor for gestational hypertension. What effect can
this have on the newborn?
a. Elevated cortisol levels
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Muscle weakness
d. Jaundice
Answer: c. Muscle weakness
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate crosses the placenta and may cause transient hypotonia and muscle
weakness in the newborn.
6. A pregnant woman with varicella-zoster at 32 weeks gestation is now in active labor at 40 weeks.
What is the appropriate intervention?
a. Administer zoster immunoglobulin to the newborn at delivery
b. Administer zoster immunoglobulin to the mother before delivery
c. No action is needed as the mother’s antibodies are protective
d. Isolate the newborn for 2 weeks postpartum
Answer: c. No action is needed as the mother’s antibodies are protective
Rationale: Maternal antibodies are transferred to the fetus during pregnancy and provide immunity to
the newborn.
7. To reduce the risk of fetal death to that of a non-smoker, a pregnant woman must quit smoking by:
a. Before pregnancy occurs
b. By the end of the first trimester
c. By the end of the second trimester
d. By the third trimester
,ESTUDYR
Answer: b. By the end of the first trimester
Rationale: Quitting smoking by the end of the first trimester significantly reduces the risk of
complications and aligns outcomes with those of non-smokers.
8. A patient in preterm labor at 30 weeks received indomethacin. The newborn should be observed
for:
a. Duodenal atresia
b. Hirschsprung disease
c. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
d. Persistent pulmonary hypertension
Answer: c. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
Rationale: Indomethacin use in preterm labor may reduce fetal renal perfusion, increasing the risk of
NEC in preterm infants.
9. What are the characteristics of a dizygotic pregnancy?
a. One placenta and one amniotic sac
b. One placenta and two amniotic sacs
c. Two placentas and two amniotic sacs
d. Two placentas and one amniotic sac
Answer: c. Two placentas and two amniotic sacs
Rationale: Dizygotic twins result from two separate eggs and sperm, leading to two placentas and two
amniotic sacs.
10. A woman is diagnosed with oligohydramnios during her pregnancy. The fetus/newborn should be
evaluated for:
a. Diabetes insipidus
b. Klippel-Feil syndrome
c. Polycystic kidney disease
d. Hydrocephalus
Answer: c. Polycystic kidney disease
Rationale: Oligohydramnios can result from renal anomalies like polycystic kidney disease, which
impairs fetal urine production.
, ESTUDYR
11. A fetus at 36 weeks receives a biophysical profile (BPP) score of 6. What is the expected
management?
a. Immediate delivery
b. Repeat BPP in 24 hours
c. Schedule the next test in one week
d. Administer corticosteroids for fetal lung maturity
Answer: b. Repeat BPP in 24 hours
Rationale: A score of 6 warrants close monitoring, and repeating the BPP within 24 hours helps assess
fetal well-being.
12. A postpartum woman’s prenatal history shows a lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:0. What
does this indicate?
a. A PG (phosphatidylglycerol) test is needed
b. The lungs are mature, and delivery will occur
c. The lungs are still immature, and the test will be repeated in one week
d. Immediate corticosteroids are required
Answer: b. The lungs are mature, and delivery will occur
Rationale: An L/S ratio ≥2:0 indicates fetal lung maturity, and the fetus can be safely delivered.
13. Which of the following is a limitation of the alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test?
a. Closed neural tube defects are not detected
b. It will not detect Down syndrome
c. Its best sensitivity is at 20 weeks
d. It is only performed in high-risk pregnancies
Answer: a. Closed neural tube defects are not detected
Rationale: AFP testing detects open neural tube defects but not closed ones, limiting its diagnostic
scope.
14. A postpartum woman’s quad screen shows low MSAFP and high HCG and inhibin A. What
diagnosis is expected for the newborn?
a. Neural tube defect
b. Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
