Nursing 160: Comprehensive Test 1 Review
Schedule 1 drugs - correct answer ✔✔Highest potential for abuse, no therapeutic use, (Heroine
marijuana LSD)
Schedule II drugs - correct answer ✔✔a type of drug with medicinal uses that is highly addictive and only
available with a prescription and has severe restrictions. Abuse of the drug may lead to severe
psychological or physical dependence. (Ritalin, Fentanyl, Cocaine, Hydrocodone, Hydromorphone)
Schedule III drugs - correct answer ✔✔- has potential for abuse, but to a lesser degree than schedules I +
II
- drug has an accepted medical treatment
- abuse of drug may lead to moderate or low physical dependency or high psychological dependence
- may not be dispensed without a prescription
- may not be dispensed six months after prescription written
- may not be refilled more than 5 times
- may be prescribed orally or over phone
(Codeine, Ketamine, anabolic steroids, testosterone)
Schedule IV drugs - correct answer ✔✔a type of drug with medicinal uses that has a low potential for
addiction and only available with a prescription. (Xanax, Soma, Darvocet, Valium, Ativan, Ambien,
Tramadol)
Schedule V drugs - correct answer ✔✔These drugs have less potential for abuse than schedule II, III, and
IV drugs. Contains limited quantities of certain narcotics. Generally used for antidiarrheal, antitussive,
and analgesic purposes. (Robitussin, Lomotil, Motefen, Lyrica Parepectolin)
just culture - correct answer ✔✔culture where staff are willing to come forward with information about
errors so everyone can learn from mistakes; the culture recognizes the need for accountability & at times
disciplinary action
Active vs. Latent Errors - correct answer ✔✔active errors
,(errors occurring at the point of interface between humans and a complex system) and
latent errors (the hidden problems within healthcare systems that contribute to adverse
events).
informed consent - correct answer ✔✔A written agreement to participate in a study made by an adult
who has been informed of all the risks that participation may entail. Physicians responsibility.
Pathological fracture - correct answer ✔✔breaking of diseased, weakened bone from the stress of
normal everyday activities. (Osteoporosis)
ORIF - correct answer ✔✔open reduction internal fixation
Post op teaching starts when? - correct answer ✔✔In the pre-op phase
Hearing Aids - correct answer ✔✔electronic devices that are worn to correct a hearing loss and amplify
sound. Check batteries, clean them, take out at night, don't get wet, keep in a safe place.
What to do when a patient is hard of hearing? - correct answer ✔✔approach face to face with a low
tone, eliminate distractions, quiet the environment, can use hand gestures.
What kind of diet promotes healing? - correct answer ✔✔High protein, low fat, low carb diet
Acetaminophen Category and drug action - correct answer ✔✔Tylenol-
Category- Nonopiod analgesic antipyretic
Action- block pain impulses peripherally, that occur in response to inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
Acetaminophen Uses - correct answer ✔✔mild to moderate pain, fever
, Acetaminophen route and dosage range? - correct answer ✔✔PO, Rectal, IV
325-650 mg q4-6hr PRN. MAX 4g/day or 4000 mg/day) If you go over could cause liver failure
Acetaminophen side effects? - correct answer ✔✔Nausea, vomiting, rash
Acetaminophen adverse effects? - correct answer ✔✔hepatoxicity, hepatic seizure, GI bleed, Renal
failure, leukopenia, neutropenia, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia
Acetaminophen Black Box Warning? - correct answer ✔✔Hepatoxicity
Morphine category and drug action - correct answer ✔✔MS Contin
Opioid Analgesic
Schedule II
Depresses pain impulse transmission at the spinal cord level by interacting with opioid receptors
Morphine uses - correct answer ✔✔moderate to severe pain
Morphine Route and Dosage Range - correct answer ✔✔Best absorbed IV, IM, Subcut
Absorption depends on person and how metabolism is
PO > 50 kg 10-30 mg q3-4hr <50 kg might require lower dosage
Morphine side effects - correct answer ✔✔Drowsiness.
Dizziness.
Sedation.
Confusion.
Urinary retention.
Rash.
Blurred vision.
Bradycardia.
Schedule 1 drugs - correct answer ✔✔Highest potential for abuse, no therapeutic use, (Heroine
marijuana LSD)
Schedule II drugs - correct answer ✔✔a type of drug with medicinal uses that is highly addictive and only
available with a prescription and has severe restrictions. Abuse of the drug may lead to severe
psychological or physical dependence. (Ritalin, Fentanyl, Cocaine, Hydrocodone, Hydromorphone)
Schedule III drugs - correct answer ✔✔- has potential for abuse, but to a lesser degree than schedules I +
II
- drug has an accepted medical treatment
- abuse of drug may lead to moderate or low physical dependency or high psychological dependence
- may not be dispensed without a prescription
- may not be dispensed six months after prescription written
- may not be refilled more than 5 times
- may be prescribed orally or over phone
(Codeine, Ketamine, anabolic steroids, testosterone)
Schedule IV drugs - correct answer ✔✔a type of drug with medicinal uses that has a low potential for
addiction and only available with a prescription. (Xanax, Soma, Darvocet, Valium, Ativan, Ambien,
Tramadol)
Schedule V drugs - correct answer ✔✔These drugs have less potential for abuse than schedule II, III, and
IV drugs. Contains limited quantities of certain narcotics. Generally used for antidiarrheal, antitussive,
and analgesic purposes. (Robitussin, Lomotil, Motefen, Lyrica Parepectolin)
just culture - correct answer ✔✔culture where staff are willing to come forward with information about
errors so everyone can learn from mistakes; the culture recognizes the need for accountability & at times
disciplinary action
Active vs. Latent Errors - correct answer ✔✔active errors
,(errors occurring at the point of interface between humans and a complex system) and
latent errors (the hidden problems within healthcare systems that contribute to adverse
events).
informed consent - correct answer ✔✔A written agreement to participate in a study made by an adult
who has been informed of all the risks that participation may entail. Physicians responsibility.
Pathological fracture - correct answer ✔✔breaking of diseased, weakened bone from the stress of
normal everyday activities. (Osteoporosis)
ORIF - correct answer ✔✔open reduction internal fixation
Post op teaching starts when? - correct answer ✔✔In the pre-op phase
Hearing Aids - correct answer ✔✔electronic devices that are worn to correct a hearing loss and amplify
sound. Check batteries, clean them, take out at night, don't get wet, keep in a safe place.
What to do when a patient is hard of hearing? - correct answer ✔✔approach face to face with a low
tone, eliminate distractions, quiet the environment, can use hand gestures.
What kind of diet promotes healing? - correct answer ✔✔High protein, low fat, low carb diet
Acetaminophen Category and drug action - correct answer ✔✔Tylenol-
Category- Nonopiod analgesic antipyretic
Action- block pain impulses peripherally, that occur in response to inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
Acetaminophen Uses - correct answer ✔✔mild to moderate pain, fever
, Acetaminophen route and dosage range? - correct answer ✔✔PO, Rectal, IV
325-650 mg q4-6hr PRN. MAX 4g/day or 4000 mg/day) If you go over could cause liver failure
Acetaminophen side effects? - correct answer ✔✔Nausea, vomiting, rash
Acetaminophen adverse effects? - correct answer ✔✔hepatoxicity, hepatic seizure, GI bleed, Renal
failure, leukopenia, neutropenia, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia
Acetaminophen Black Box Warning? - correct answer ✔✔Hepatoxicity
Morphine category and drug action - correct answer ✔✔MS Contin
Opioid Analgesic
Schedule II
Depresses pain impulse transmission at the spinal cord level by interacting with opioid receptors
Morphine uses - correct answer ✔✔moderate to severe pain
Morphine Route and Dosage Range - correct answer ✔✔Best absorbed IV, IM, Subcut
Absorption depends on person and how metabolism is
PO > 50 kg 10-30 mg q3-4hr <50 kg might require lower dosage
Morphine side effects - correct answer ✔✔Drowsiness.
Dizziness.
Sedation.
Confusion.
Urinary retention.
Rash.
Blurred vision.
Bradycardia.
