Comp Exam Review UAMS MLS
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_ae5d0x
1. ABY most associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions: Anti-Jk
a
2. ABY associated with Mycoplasma pneumonia: Anti-I
3. __________ antibodies cause extravascular hemolysis from sequestration
by spleen: IgG
4. Enzyme panel will not react with which antibodies?: Duffy antibodies (Fya or
Fyb
5. When a unit of blood is entered, it has how long to be used?: 24 hours
6. Component storage temps
-Red cells: -CPDA for 35 days
-Adsol for 42 days
-1-6C
7. Component storage temps
-Whole blood with CPDA-1: 1-6C for 35 days
8. Blood transfused to babies should be...: Less than 7 days old
9. Irradiated RBCs must be used within what time frame?: 28 days or expiration
date (whichever is first)
10. Component storage temps
-Frozen & deglycerized RBC: Freeze at -80C and store at -65C for 10 years
11. Why is blood leukoreduced?: Prevent febrile transfusion reactions
12. Component storage temps
-PLTs: -Room temp (20-24C)
-5 days with continuous agitation
*transfuse within 4 hours of pooling*
13. Component storage temps
-WBCs: -20-24C
-24 hours
14. Component storage temps
-FFP: -Frozen at -18C for 1 year
-24 hours after thawing
15. Component storage temps
-Cryo AHF: -18C for one year
16. Component storage temps
-AHF or factor VIII concentrate: 24 hours after thaw at 1-6C (RT for VIII)
17. Give VIII and fibrinogen within _________ hours after pooling: 4
18. T/F: RhIG at 28 weeks can cause the mom to have a low titer anti D: True
19. T/F: Blood from mom to child must be irradiated.: True
20. T/F: 37C crossmatch is needed to detect ABO errors.: False (Room temp)
, Comp Exam Review UAMS MLS
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_ae5d0x
21. Premature infants need transfusion mostly because of...: blood loss from
lab tests
22. T/F: When phenotyping, use a positive control that is homozygous posi-
tive.: False (heterozygously positive to show weak reactions)
23. Rouleaux and cold auto will make the auto control positive. How can
this be distinguished?: Distinguish by warming, looking under scope or saline
replacement
24. __________ will react with polyspecific AHG and C3 monospecific AHG: -
Cold auto
25. Cryoprecipitate is used today mostly to replace what?: Fibrinogen
26. T/F: AB= patient can only get AB plasma (+ or =): True
27. Intrauterine transfusion must have what done to it?: Fresh, CMV=, irradiated
and collected with CDPA
28. What component is used when PT and PTT are prolonged?: FFP
29. T/F: Lewis antibodies react at RT and sometimes 37 and cause invitro
hemolysis.: True
30. Sexual partner of IV drug user deferred from donating for how long?: One
year
31. Patient has antibodies to: A ; B ; A,B and H;
They foward and reverse type as an O.
What is suspected? How is it resolved?: Bombay; test with anti-H lectin (will not
react since bombay has no H antigens)
32. A patient foward types as a B and backtypes as an A. What is suspected?
How is it resolved?: Acquired B; patient is typically type A1 with GI issues and
some bacteria alter the RBC antigens
Resolve by autologous testing; patient's anti-B will not react with the acquired B
antigen on their RBCs
33. A patient foward types as a weak A. There is a weak reaction with anti-A1
and strong reaction with anti-AB. There is no reaction with anti-A1 lectin. The
reverse reacts with A1 cells. What is suspected? How is it resolved?: Patient
with anti-A1;
Type with A2 cells (+ indicates NOT A2; = indicates it is A2)
34. Review ABO typing discrepancies chart.:
35. __________ can make the Rh control + when doing weak D test: +DAT
36. Enzyme destroys which antigens? It strengthens which?: -Destroys M, N,
S, Fy (ZAPP also destroys K)
-Strengthens Rh, Le, and Jk
37. ABYs which can be neutralized?: Le and P1
, Comp Exam Review UAMS MLS
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_ae5d0x
38. ABYs which show dosage?: M, N, Jk, Rh
39. RhIG calculation: # fetal cells / 500 = ___
___ x 5000 then /30 and +1
40. A2 cells ONLY react with?: B and O
41. H substance concentration: O > A2 > B > A2B > A1 > A1B
42. -A contains which sugar?
-B contains which sugar?
-H contains which sugar?: -A contains which sugar? N-acetylgalactosamine
-B contains which sugar? D-galactose
-H contains which sugar? L-fucose
43. -Detects IgG and complement attachment in vivo
-Used for HDN, transfusion reaction, AIHA, drug-induced rxns: DAT
44. -Detects antibodies in vitro
-Detects unexpected antibodies: IAT
45. Frequency of D antigen?: 85%
46. What is an elution?: Removes antibody that is attached to the surface of RBCs
47. What are check cells?: Group O cells D+ with anti-D added
48. Rh Nomenclature (Fisher-Race): R = D1
1 = Ce
2 = cE
z = CE
r=d
' = Ce
" = cE
y = ce
49. Who should a weak D test be performed on?: Blood donors (ALWAYS) and
pregnant women (if necessary)
50. Donor physical requirements: -12.5+ HGB for females & 13+ for males
-38+ HCT for females and 39+ for males
-BP of 90--100
-<99.5 temp
-50-100 bpm
-110 lbs minimum
->16 y/o
51. Temporary deferrals:
-Measles, mumps, polio, typhoid, yellow fever vaccines
-Rubella & varicella vaccines
-Hep B vaccine
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_ae5d0x
1. ABY most associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions: Anti-Jk
a
2. ABY associated with Mycoplasma pneumonia: Anti-I
3. __________ antibodies cause extravascular hemolysis from sequestration
by spleen: IgG
4. Enzyme panel will not react with which antibodies?: Duffy antibodies (Fya or
Fyb
5. When a unit of blood is entered, it has how long to be used?: 24 hours
6. Component storage temps
-Red cells: -CPDA for 35 days
-Adsol for 42 days
-1-6C
7. Component storage temps
-Whole blood with CPDA-1: 1-6C for 35 days
8. Blood transfused to babies should be...: Less than 7 days old
9. Irradiated RBCs must be used within what time frame?: 28 days or expiration
date (whichever is first)
10. Component storage temps
-Frozen & deglycerized RBC: Freeze at -80C and store at -65C for 10 years
11. Why is blood leukoreduced?: Prevent febrile transfusion reactions
12. Component storage temps
-PLTs: -Room temp (20-24C)
-5 days with continuous agitation
*transfuse within 4 hours of pooling*
13. Component storage temps
-WBCs: -20-24C
-24 hours
14. Component storage temps
-FFP: -Frozen at -18C for 1 year
-24 hours after thawing
15. Component storage temps
-Cryo AHF: -18C for one year
16. Component storage temps
-AHF or factor VIII concentrate: 24 hours after thaw at 1-6C (RT for VIII)
17. Give VIII and fibrinogen within _________ hours after pooling: 4
18. T/F: RhIG at 28 weeks can cause the mom to have a low titer anti D: True
19. T/F: Blood from mom to child must be irradiated.: True
20. T/F: 37C crossmatch is needed to detect ABO errors.: False (Room temp)
, Comp Exam Review UAMS MLS
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_ae5d0x
21. Premature infants need transfusion mostly because of...: blood loss from
lab tests
22. T/F: When phenotyping, use a positive control that is homozygous posi-
tive.: False (heterozygously positive to show weak reactions)
23. Rouleaux and cold auto will make the auto control positive. How can
this be distinguished?: Distinguish by warming, looking under scope or saline
replacement
24. __________ will react with polyspecific AHG and C3 monospecific AHG: -
Cold auto
25. Cryoprecipitate is used today mostly to replace what?: Fibrinogen
26. T/F: AB= patient can only get AB plasma (+ or =): True
27. Intrauterine transfusion must have what done to it?: Fresh, CMV=, irradiated
and collected with CDPA
28. What component is used when PT and PTT are prolonged?: FFP
29. T/F: Lewis antibodies react at RT and sometimes 37 and cause invitro
hemolysis.: True
30. Sexual partner of IV drug user deferred from donating for how long?: One
year
31. Patient has antibodies to: A ; B ; A,B and H;
They foward and reverse type as an O.
What is suspected? How is it resolved?: Bombay; test with anti-H lectin (will not
react since bombay has no H antigens)
32. A patient foward types as a B and backtypes as an A. What is suspected?
How is it resolved?: Acquired B; patient is typically type A1 with GI issues and
some bacteria alter the RBC antigens
Resolve by autologous testing; patient's anti-B will not react with the acquired B
antigen on their RBCs
33. A patient foward types as a weak A. There is a weak reaction with anti-A1
and strong reaction with anti-AB. There is no reaction with anti-A1 lectin. The
reverse reacts with A1 cells. What is suspected? How is it resolved?: Patient
with anti-A1;
Type with A2 cells (+ indicates NOT A2; = indicates it is A2)
34. Review ABO typing discrepancies chart.:
35. __________ can make the Rh control + when doing weak D test: +DAT
36. Enzyme destroys which antigens? It strengthens which?: -Destroys M, N,
S, Fy (ZAPP also destroys K)
-Strengthens Rh, Le, and Jk
37. ABYs which can be neutralized?: Le and P1
, Comp Exam Review UAMS MLS
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_ae5d0x
38. ABYs which show dosage?: M, N, Jk, Rh
39. RhIG calculation: # fetal cells / 500 = ___
___ x 5000 then /30 and +1
40. A2 cells ONLY react with?: B and O
41. H substance concentration: O > A2 > B > A2B > A1 > A1B
42. -A contains which sugar?
-B contains which sugar?
-H contains which sugar?: -A contains which sugar? N-acetylgalactosamine
-B contains which sugar? D-galactose
-H contains which sugar? L-fucose
43. -Detects IgG and complement attachment in vivo
-Used for HDN, transfusion reaction, AIHA, drug-induced rxns: DAT
44. -Detects antibodies in vitro
-Detects unexpected antibodies: IAT
45. Frequency of D antigen?: 85%
46. What is an elution?: Removes antibody that is attached to the surface of RBCs
47. What are check cells?: Group O cells D+ with anti-D added
48. Rh Nomenclature (Fisher-Race): R = D1
1 = Ce
2 = cE
z = CE
r=d
' = Ce
" = cE
y = ce
49. Who should a weak D test be performed on?: Blood donors (ALWAYS) and
pregnant women (if necessary)
50. Donor physical requirements: -12.5+ HGB for females & 13+ for males
-38+ HCT for females and 39+ for males
-BP of 90--100
-<99.5 temp
-50-100 bpm
-110 lbs minimum
->16 y/o
51. Temporary deferrals:
-Measles, mumps, polio, typhoid, yellow fever vaccines
-Rubella & varicella vaccines
-Hep B vaccine
