RISK MANAGEMENT BASIC TESTBANK
States differ in their requirements for reporting adverse events or incidents. -
answer-TRUE
Exposure avoidance is the elimination of services that may cause losses. - answer-
TRUE
Occurrence Reporting method yields the highest percentage of reportable incidents.
- answer-FALSE
Risk Management and Quality Assurance are 2 concepts that are mutually
exclusive. - answer-FALSE
Incident or occurrence reports are a method of risk __________: - answer-b.
Identification
Adequate insurance coverage is an example of risk __________. - answer-a. Financing
Continuous collection of information to search for liability risks is an example of risk
__________. - answer-b. Identification
Quality Assurance and Risk Management: - answer-a. Have a close relationship and
overlap in several areas
Risk Management tools are - answer-a. Incident, and occurrence reporting, along
with occurrence screening
List 2 of the 'Red Flag' areas and describe what Risk Managers should watch out for
in each. - answer--Treatment Conditions: poor treatment results, repetition of the
problem, lack of follow-up care, and equipment malfunction.
-Conduct of staff: acting outside the scope of training, lack of qualified supervision,
performance of a procedure for the first time without supervision, outspoken or rude
behavior, personality conflict, and poor physician-staff relationship.
Best Interest is the ethical standard which applies to individual who never had
decision-making capacity. - answer-a. TRUE
Autonomy is the obligation to do good for patients (or at least no harm). - answer-a.
FALSE
Almost every organization of healthcare professionals has a code of ethics which
details the values, duties and responsibilities of their profession. - answer-a. TRUE
The concept of justice means that people should be treated in an equitable or fair
fashion. - answer-a. TRUE
The process in which a patient is given all the information needed to allow them to
make a decision on medical care is called - answer-c. Informed consent
,Substituted judgment is used when - answer-b. Someone previously with capacity
for decision-making has lost that capacity
A living will is: - answer-c. A & B
Define Advanced Directives and discuss the difference between Living Will and
Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare. - answer-a. Advanced Directives can
make substituted judgements much easier to achieve. This includes living wills,
health care proxies, and durable powers of attorney for health care. Living wills
often contain what the patient would not want, and there is some difficulty because
they are often not specific to the situation at hand. Durable Power of Attorney for
Health care allows for the designation of a surrogate decision maker, who is able to
discuss the pros and cons of specific interventions.
Ethics committees are usually interdisciplinary. - answer-a. TRUE
There is a single model for every ethics committee. - answer-a. FALSE
A standard is a statement concerning proper procedures taken in a given situation. -
answer-a. TRUE
Medicare is a state-run program so each state sets its standards for reimbursement.
- answer-a. FALSE
EMTALA is a state mandate that requires healthcare providers to take care of
certain emergency patients until they are stabilized. - answer-a. FALSE
The Federal mandate that requires healthcare providers to offer a safe work
environment for their staff is - answer-b. OSHA
The federal mandate that ensures the continuity of healthcare coverage for persons
changing jobs is: - answer-c. HIPAA
Written guidelines to ensure that everyone follows the same specific procedure in a
given clinical or administrative situation are called ____________ standards. - answer-
c. Explicit
Which is NOT a type of standard?
a. Explicit or Implicit
b. National or local
c. Validated or consensual
d. Used or ingnored
e. Periodically updated or static - answer-d. All of the above are types of standards
Which of the following categories are not potential hazards found in hospitals? -
answer-c. Hydrostatic
Describe a patient grievance procedure. - answer-a. All patients are required to be
given the Patient's Bill of Rights within four hours of admission to the hospital,
,breastfeeding mothers are required to be given the Mother's Bill of Rights in some
states. Informed consent is required for medical treatment and informed consent for
surgical and invasive procedures to be given to the physician of record. In the event
that a patient refuses treatment, a physician may treat the patient to save his or
her life. Patients also have the right of privacy, the right to receive treatment
information in their primary language, and the right to non-discrimination.
Define and discuss false claims. - answer-a. A false claim can be made by anyone
who "knowingly" submits or causes the submission of a false or fraudulent claim to
the United States. Anti-fraud activities of the federal government under the
regulations of the False Claims Act range from audits of hospitals, nursing homes,
medical care organizations, and practicing health professionals to targeted medical
care claims.
Physicians are all held to the same standard of the skill and knowledge regardless of
their specialty. - answer-a. FALSE
Two physicians jointly participating in the diagnosis and treatment of a patient are
liable for each other's negligent actions. - answer-a. TRUE
With some exceptions, the statutory period is deferred during the infancy of a minor
patient and starts to run only on the patient's 20th birthday. - answer-a. FALSE
Slander is defamatory words in a written or printed statement. - answer-a. FALSE
Term denoting nonconsensual, unlawful or wrongful physical constraint or touching.
- answer-b. Battery
The 4 requirements of Negligence do not include: - answer-d. Health care worker
must be an employee of the facility
Respondeat superior means - answer-a. The employer is responsible for the
wrongful acts of its employees
Discuss the difference between Respondeat Superior and Ostensible Agency. -
answer-a. Respondeat Superior states that the employer is liable for the actions of
their employees, whereas ostensible agency is implemented in cases of
independent contractors, in which the physician themselves would be held liable for
wrong doing.
Describe the difference between Compensatory damage and Punitive damage. -
answer-a. Compensatory damage awards cover economic losses for past and future
medical and supportive care, or past and future loss of earnings resulting from
physical impairment. Punitive damage awards more than usual compensatory
damages reflect gross negligence or deliberate wrongful intent.
Define Res Ipsa Loquitur and the 4 elements that a plaintiff must demonstrate. -
answer-a. Res Ipsa Loquitur means "the thing speaks for itself." The four elements a
plaintiff must demonstrate are: The injury would not ordinarily occur in the absence
of negligence, the injury was caused by the actions or instrumentality within the
, exclusive control of the defendant, the injury was not due to any action on the part
of the plaintiff, and the evidence surrounding the circumstances relating to or
concerning the injury was mostly within the control of the defendant.
'Employment at Will' states that the employer can terminate an employee for any or
no reason. - answer-TRUE
People with HIV or AIDS are protected under the Americans with Disabilities Act. -
answer-TRUE
The claim of Retaliation is very difficult to prove. - answer-FALSE
Healthcare employers are obligated to provide a safe workplace. - answer-TRUE
Negligent hiring is a legally recognized cause of action that requires a plaintiff to
prove all of the following: - answer--the subject was an employee
-the employee was incompetent or posed a forseeable risk
-the employer knew or should have known about the incompetence or the risk of
the employee
-the employee caused a injury
-the negligent hiring was the proximate cause of the injury, bringing the employee
into contact with the damaged party
The mutually beneficial social insurance system where the employer takes care of
an injured employee's medical costs in exchange for the waiver of the right sue is: -
answer-Workers' Compensation
Sexual Harassment can occur when an unwelcome sexual advance or request for
sexual favors: - answer-All of the above
Employers can achieve fewer accidents and lower workers compensation cost by: -
answer-Minimize safety hazards and investigate all accidents with a view toward
future deterrence
Define and discuss the phrase "Hostile Environment Sexual Harassment." -
answer-"Hostile Environment Sexual Harassment" occurs when conduct has the
purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with a person's work environment
based on actions or word with a sexual connotation.
Define and discuss the phrase "Due Process." - answer-"Due Process" requires that
there be a clear rule against the misconduct, a reasonable rule, a thorough and
objective investigation in which the employee has the opportunity to offer his or her
side of the story, notice of the charges and penalty sought, and an opportunity to
respond or appeal in some fashion. In order to achieve these zones of relative
safety, employers usually apply ascending penalties where feasible.
Studies have concluded clinician communication provided in a timely manner with
sincerity influences patients' responses to adverse events. - answer-TRUE
States differ in their requirements for reporting adverse events or incidents. -
answer-TRUE
Exposure avoidance is the elimination of services that may cause losses. - answer-
TRUE
Occurrence Reporting method yields the highest percentage of reportable incidents.
- answer-FALSE
Risk Management and Quality Assurance are 2 concepts that are mutually
exclusive. - answer-FALSE
Incident or occurrence reports are a method of risk __________: - answer-b.
Identification
Adequate insurance coverage is an example of risk __________. - answer-a. Financing
Continuous collection of information to search for liability risks is an example of risk
__________. - answer-b. Identification
Quality Assurance and Risk Management: - answer-a. Have a close relationship and
overlap in several areas
Risk Management tools are - answer-a. Incident, and occurrence reporting, along
with occurrence screening
List 2 of the 'Red Flag' areas and describe what Risk Managers should watch out for
in each. - answer--Treatment Conditions: poor treatment results, repetition of the
problem, lack of follow-up care, and equipment malfunction.
-Conduct of staff: acting outside the scope of training, lack of qualified supervision,
performance of a procedure for the first time without supervision, outspoken or rude
behavior, personality conflict, and poor physician-staff relationship.
Best Interest is the ethical standard which applies to individual who never had
decision-making capacity. - answer-a. TRUE
Autonomy is the obligation to do good for patients (or at least no harm). - answer-a.
FALSE
Almost every organization of healthcare professionals has a code of ethics which
details the values, duties and responsibilities of their profession. - answer-a. TRUE
The concept of justice means that people should be treated in an equitable or fair
fashion. - answer-a. TRUE
The process in which a patient is given all the information needed to allow them to
make a decision on medical care is called - answer-c. Informed consent
,Substituted judgment is used when - answer-b. Someone previously with capacity
for decision-making has lost that capacity
A living will is: - answer-c. A & B
Define Advanced Directives and discuss the difference between Living Will and
Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare. - answer-a. Advanced Directives can
make substituted judgements much easier to achieve. This includes living wills,
health care proxies, and durable powers of attorney for health care. Living wills
often contain what the patient would not want, and there is some difficulty because
they are often not specific to the situation at hand. Durable Power of Attorney for
Health care allows for the designation of a surrogate decision maker, who is able to
discuss the pros and cons of specific interventions.
Ethics committees are usually interdisciplinary. - answer-a. TRUE
There is a single model for every ethics committee. - answer-a. FALSE
A standard is a statement concerning proper procedures taken in a given situation. -
answer-a. TRUE
Medicare is a state-run program so each state sets its standards for reimbursement.
- answer-a. FALSE
EMTALA is a state mandate that requires healthcare providers to take care of
certain emergency patients until they are stabilized. - answer-a. FALSE
The Federal mandate that requires healthcare providers to offer a safe work
environment for their staff is - answer-b. OSHA
The federal mandate that ensures the continuity of healthcare coverage for persons
changing jobs is: - answer-c. HIPAA
Written guidelines to ensure that everyone follows the same specific procedure in a
given clinical or administrative situation are called ____________ standards. - answer-
c. Explicit
Which is NOT a type of standard?
a. Explicit or Implicit
b. National or local
c. Validated or consensual
d. Used or ingnored
e. Periodically updated or static - answer-d. All of the above are types of standards
Which of the following categories are not potential hazards found in hospitals? -
answer-c. Hydrostatic
Describe a patient grievance procedure. - answer-a. All patients are required to be
given the Patient's Bill of Rights within four hours of admission to the hospital,
,breastfeeding mothers are required to be given the Mother's Bill of Rights in some
states. Informed consent is required for medical treatment and informed consent for
surgical and invasive procedures to be given to the physician of record. In the event
that a patient refuses treatment, a physician may treat the patient to save his or
her life. Patients also have the right of privacy, the right to receive treatment
information in their primary language, and the right to non-discrimination.
Define and discuss false claims. - answer-a. A false claim can be made by anyone
who "knowingly" submits or causes the submission of a false or fraudulent claim to
the United States. Anti-fraud activities of the federal government under the
regulations of the False Claims Act range from audits of hospitals, nursing homes,
medical care organizations, and practicing health professionals to targeted medical
care claims.
Physicians are all held to the same standard of the skill and knowledge regardless of
their specialty. - answer-a. FALSE
Two physicians jointly participating in the diagnosis and treatment of a patient are
liable for each other's negligent actions. - answer-a. TRUE
With some exceptions, the statutory period is deferred during the infancy of a minor
patient and starts to run only on the patient's 20th birthday. - answer-a. FALSE
Slander is defamatory words in a written or printed statement. - answer-a. FALSE
Term denoting nonconsensual, unlawful or wrongful physical constraint or touching.
- answer-b. Battery
The 4 requirements of Negligence do not include: - answer-d. Health care worker
must be an employee of the facility
Respondeat superior means - answer-a. The employer is responsible for the
wrongful acts of its employees
Discuss the difference between Respondeat Superior and Ostensible Agency. -
answer-a. Respondeat Superior states that the employer is liable for the actions of
their employees, whereas ostensible agency is implemented in cases of
independent contractors, in which the physician themselves would be held liable for
wrong doing.
Describe the difference between Compensatory damage and Punitive damage. -
answer-a. Compensatory damage awards cover economic losses for past and future
medical and supportive care, or past and future loss of earnings resulting from
physical impairment. Punitive damage awards more than usual compensatory
damages reflect gross negligence or deliberate wrongful intent.
Define Res Ipsa Loquitur and the 4 elements that a plaintiff must demonstrate. -
answer-a. Res Ipsa Loquitur means "the thing speaks for itself." The four elements a
plaintiff must demonstrate are: The injury would not ordinarily occur in the absence
of negligence, the injury was caused by the actions or instrumentality within the
, exclusive control of the defendant, the injury was not due to any action on the part
of the plaintiff, and the evidence surrounding the circumstances relating to or
concerning the injury was mostly within the control of the defendant.
'Employment at Will' states that the employer can terminate an employee for any or
no reason. - answer-TRUE
People with HIV or AIDS are protected under the Americans with Disabilities Act. -
answer-TRUE
The claim of Retaliation is very difficult to prove. - answer-FALSE
Healthcare employers are obligated to provide a safe workplace. - answer-TRUE
Negligent hiring is a legally recognized cause of action that requires a plaintiff to
prove all of the following: - answer--the subject was an employee
-the employee was incompetent or posed a forseeable risk
-the employer knew or should have known about the incompetence or the risk of
the employee
-the employee caused a injury
-the negligent hiring was the proximate cause of the injury, bringing the employee
into contact with the damaged party
The mutually beneficial social insurance system where the employer takes care of
an injured employee's medical costs in exchange for the waiver of the right sue is: -
answer-Workers' Compensation
Sexual Harassment can occur when an unwelcome sexual advance or request for
sexual favors: - answer-All of the above
Employers can achieve fewer accidents and lower workers compensation cost by: -
answer-Minimize safety hazards and investigate all accidents with a view toward
future deterrence
Define and discuss the phrase "Hostile Environment Sexual Harassment." -
answer-"Hostile Environment Sexual Harassment" occurs when conduct has the
purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with a person's work environment
based on actions or word with a sexual connotation.
Define and discuss the phrase "Due Process." - answer-"Due Process" requires that
there be a clear rule against the misconduct, a reasonable rule, a thorough and
objective investigation in which the employee has the opportunity to offer his or her
side of the story, notice of the charges and penalty sought, and an opportunity to
respond or appeal in some fashion. In order to achieve these zones of relative
safety, employers usually apply ascending penalties where feasible.
Studies have concluded clinician communication provided in a timely manner with
sincerity influences patients' responses to adverse events. - answer-TRUE
