University of Waterloo BIOL 373 Final Exam Answered Correctly Fall 2025/2026

BIOL 373 FINAL EXAM 7 AM/SANIA: 1. In terms of contributions to physiology _______ was to stress physiology as _________ was to homeostasis a. Claude Bernard, Hans Selye b. Hans Selye, Walter Cannon c. Walter Gretzky, Hans Selye d. Walter cannon, wilder penfield e. Claude bernard, walter cannon 2. Cerebrospinal fluid exits the ventricular system and reaches the peripheral circulation via the following route: 1. Arachnoid villi 2.Central canal of spinal cord 3.Fourth ventricle 4.Subarachnoid space 5. Superior sagittal sinus 6. Third ventricle 7.Venous return to right heart 8. Median and lateral apertures a. 6 → 8 → 4 → 1 → 5 → 7 b. 3 → 8 → 1 → 4 → 5 → 7 c. 3 → 8 → 4 → 1 → 5 → 7 d. 3 → 8 → 4 → 5 → 1 → 7 e. 3 → 2 → 8 → 4 → 5 → 7 3. Clusters of neuron cell bodies and synapses outside the CNS are referred to as: a. Ganglia b. Nuclei c. Cortexes d. Tracts e. Roots 4. Clusters of neuron cell bodies and synapse within the CNS are referred to as: a. Ganglia b. Tracts c. Nuclei d. Cortexes e. Roots 5. **Spinal nerves: a. Carry both sensory and motor information (T) b. Contain only myelinated axonsc. Have dorsal and ventral roots (T) d. A and B e. A,B, and C (defo typo on prof end cuz both myelinated and unmylinated!) 6. **Spinal nerves... a. Carry both sensory and motor information b. Contain both myelinated and unmyelinated axons (different types of fibers = c fibers are unmyelinated, others are myelinated) c. Have dorsal and ventral roots d. A and B e. A,B, and C **** Need help with myelinated or unmyelinated 7. Parasympathetic neural information travels in nerves that… a. Originate in the hypothalamus and travel all the way to their effector organs via single fibres b. Exit the CNS at all segments of the vertebral column c. Exit the CNS at the brainstem and sacral spinal cord d. Exit the CNS at thoracic and lumbar regions of the vertebral column 8. Gray matter in the central nervous system… a. Includes descending tracts that carry information from the brain b. Consists of cell bodies, dendrites, and axon terminals c. Refers to ascending tracts that carry information to the brain d. Contains myelinated axons with very few cell bodies e. A,B,C 9. White matter in the central nervous system… a. Includes descending tracts that carry information from the brain b. Contains myelinated axons with very few cell bodies c. Includes ascending tracts that carry information to the brain d. A and C e. A, B and C 10. Cell bodies of somatic motor neurons are located in a. Ventral root ganglia b. Ventral horns of the spinal cord c. Dorsal root ganglia d. Propriospinal tracts e. Dorsal horn of the spinal cord11. **An injury at the mid back level (between the shoulder blades) that severs tracts on the RIGHT side of the spinal cord would result in… a. Loss of fine touch sensation from the left leg (Since fine touch crosses at the medulla,but pain and temp dont) b. Loss of temperature sensation from the left leg c. Loss of motor control of the left leg d. A and C e. A, B, and C 12. **An injury at the mid back level (between the shoulder blades) that severs tracts on the LEFT side of the spinal cord would result in… a. Loss of fine touch sensation from the right leg b. Loss of temperature sensation from the right leg c. Loss of motor control of the right leg d. A and C e. A, B, and C 13. The intensity of a stimulus is encoded within the central nervous system by a. The amplitude of action potentials arriving via the afferent neuron b. The frequency of action potentials arriving via the afferent neuron (t) c. Labelled line coding d. A and C e. A, B, and C14. Which of the following is/are true? Pacinian corpuscles… a. Are located in the superficial layer of the skin b. Provide information about fine touch c. Are rapidly adapting tactile receptors d. Send afferent sensory information about touch via the corticospinal tract e. A and C 15. Visceral pain is poorly localized and can be perceived to originate from a region of the body that is different from its actual location, this is called… a. Analgesia b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Lateral inhibition d. Referred pain e. adaptation 16. Which of the following regarding pathways for information about fine touch is correct? a. Neural information travels to the brain via the dorsal columns b. The primary afferent neuron crosses the midline in the spinal cord and synapses in the dorsal horn gray matter c. The primary afferent neuron synapses in the medulla d. A and B e. A, and C 17. All sensory pathways except _____ first travel to the ______ which act as a relay and processing station a. taste , medulla b. Olfaction, hypothalamus c. Taste, thalamus d. Olfaction, medulla e. Olfaction, thalamus 18. The structure that overlies the organ of corti and is associated with the tip of the hair cells is the a. Strapedius b. Tectorial membranec. Perilymph d. Endolymph e. Basilar membrane 19. Sensations of the forces of gravity and linear acceleration are detected in the a. Semicircular canals b. Organ of Corti c. Cochlea d. Ossicles e. Saccule and utricle 20. A large region in the somatosensory cortex receiving afferent touch information from an area of skin would be associated with… a. Better ability to distinguish two nearby objects touching that area of skin as separate points b. A region of skin covering a large body part c. More afferent sensory neurons sending information there from that area of skin d. A and C --- CONFIRM PLZ - i cant find this anywhere in my notes wtf e. A, B and C 21. The photosensitive pigment expressed in the outer segments of rod cell membranes is… a. Melanin b. Transducin c. cGMP d. Rhodopsin e. Glutamate 22. When the plasma concentration of a substance exceeds its renal threshold more of the substance will be a. Filtered b. Excreted (nvm read textbook and can confirm this is it WBY?- yesss confirmed c. Secreted d. Reabsorbed 23. The starling forces determining the balance of filtration and absorption at the glomerular capillaries are the same as that in systemic blood vessels EXCEPT that… a. The hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillaries is lower than that in systemic capillaries b. The colloid osmotic pressure in glomerular capillaries is lower than that in systemic capillaries c. The hydrostatic pressure in Bowman’s capsule is higher than that in the interstitial fluid around systemic capillaries ( •Colloid pressure keeps fluid in … Inside the glomerular capillaries is higher than that of the fluid in the Bowman’s capsuled. A and C e. A, B and C 24. The starling forces determining the balance of filtration and absorption at the glomerular capillaries are the same as that in systemic blood vessels EXCEPT that… a. The hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillaries is higher than that in systemic capillaries b. The collod osmotic pressure in glomerular capillaries is lower than that in systemic capillaries c. The hydrostatic pressure in Bowman’s capsule is lower than that in the interstitial fluid around systemic capillaries d. A and C e. A, B and C 25. Hyperkalemia would be corrected by the actions of _____ acting on the ________. a. Aldosterone, loop of henle b. Aldosterone, proximal tubule c. Vasopressin, collecting duct d. Vasopressin, proximal tubule e. Aldosterone, collecting duct 26. In situations of both low blood volume and high osmolarity (e.g. dehydration) you would predict that angiotensin II would _______ and aldosterone would _______ a. Increase, remain at basal levels b. Increase, increase c. Decrease, decrease d. Decrease, increase Would be increase decrease based on this chart (but no option…) → True, if those options above then A is the best answer 27. In the presence of maximal concentrations of vasopressin (compared to low/ no vasopressin) … a. Most water reabsorption from the renal filtrate occurs in the loop of henle b. Expression of aquaporins in the distal tubule and collecting duct is increasedc. Most water reabsorption from the renal filtrate occurs in the proximal tubule d. A and B e. B and C 28. When baroreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies register increased blood pressure, this results in, a. Secretion of vasopressin b. Decreased urine production c. Increased thirst d. Increased glomerular filtration e. Inhibition of vasopressin secretion → decreased BP triggers release of VP; so i assume opposite in increased BP 29. In your co-op job at a dialysis clinic, you are asked to assess renal function for one of the patients. Her plasma creatinine concentration is 0.9 mg/dL, urinary creatinine is 1.4 mg/ml and urine output is 1.100 ml over 24 hours. What is her creatinine clearance? a. 171 mg/min b. 119 ml/min c. 1.56 ml/min d. 119 mg/min e. 155 ml/min 30. Referring to the question above is her GFR high, low, or within the normal range? a. High b. Low c. normal d. It is not possible to determine her GFR from the information provided 31. Endocrine regulation of water loss/reabsorption by the kidney involves… a. Hormone signal from the posterior pituitary gland b. Binding of a hormone to an intracellular receptor and driving of gene expression c. Increased expression of a membrane protein on the apical surfaces of epithelial cells in the distal nephron d. A and C -??????? e. A, B and C 32. If blood flow through the afferent arterioles increases a. The smooth muscles in the vessel walls stretches to accommodate the increased flow and the stretch triggers further dilation of the arteriolar wall, lessening the blood pressure b. Stretch reflexes trigger vasoconstriction to reduce the flow c. The smooth muscle in the vessel walls stretches to accommodate the increased flow d. The stretch triggers further dilation of the arteriolar wall, lessening blood pressure (straight from google)33. Key features of the loop of henle of a juxtamedullary nephron include… a. Differing permeabilities to ions and water in ascending versus descending limbs b. Hormone regulated expression of ion transporters and water channel proteins c. Close proximity to the vasa recta which flows in the opposite direction to the tubular fluid d. A and C e. A, B and C 34. A compensation for metabolic acidosis would include… a. A decrease in respiration rate b. An increase in respiration rate c. Decreased excretion of H+ d. Increased reabsorption of bicarbonate e. Both B and D 35. Compensations for alkalosis are often associated with disorders in potassium homeostasis due to the actions of an H+/K+- ATPase on… a. The basolateral surfaces of type B intercalated cells b. The basolateral surfaces for type A intercalated cells c. The apical surfaces of type A intercalated cells d. The apical surfaces of proximal tubule epithelial cells 36. Laura has had severe diarrhea for several days. Which of these is she likely to be suffering from? a. Respiratory acidosis b. Respiratory alkalosis c. Metabolic alkalosis d. Metabolic acidosis 37. Signals classified as neurohormones… a. Transmit information across synapses b. Include epinephrine released by the adrenal medulla c. Are released into the blood but act on neurons d. Are released by neurons into the blood e. Both B and D are true 38. Signals classed as neurohormones… a. Include the molecules released from the hypothalamus that act on target cells in the anterior pituitary b. Include molecules released by the anterior gland that act on target cells in the gonads c. Are released by neurons into the blood d. A and C e. A, B and C39. A steroid hormone acting via an intracellular receptor would be expected to have an effect that is ________ that of a peptide hormone regulating activity of an intracellular enzyme a. Faster than b. Slower than c. Similar in time course to 40. Endocrine cells producing a particular peptide hormone could be identified by a. Expression of their hormone product on their plasma membranes b. Expression of receptors for that hormone c. Abundant mitochondria d. The presence of membrane-bound vesicles containing that peptide hormone clustered near the plasma membrane e. High levels of activity of the cholesterol side-chain cleavage enzyme 41. In the endocrine reflex in which plasma Ca2+ concentrations are regulated by parathyroid hormone, what structure or cell type serves as the integrating centre a. The parathyroid hormone-secreting cell b. A region of the brainstem c. A region in the hypothalamus d. The medulla e. The region in the cerebral cortex responsible for ion homeostasis 42. Lipophilic hormones… a. Act via second messenger systems b. Bind to nuclear or cytoplasmic receptors c. Cannot diffuse through the cell membrane d. A and C e. A, B and C 43. A key difference between endocrine versus exocrine glands is that endocrine glands… a. Release secretory products to an ‘outside’ surface of the body b. Release secretory products into the lumen of an organ c. Contain epithelial cells d. Lack ducts and must therefore secrete into a capillary 44. In a simple endocrine reflex, the endocrine cell that releases the hormone is the a. Sensory only b. Target c. Integrating center and target d. Sensor and integrating center e. Integrating center only 45. Protein hormones…a. Act via second messenger systems b. Bind to nuclear or cytoplasmic receptors c. Cannot diffuse through the cell membrane d. A and C e. A, B and C 46. The anterior pituitary gland secretes… a. LH b. CRH c. TSH d. A and C e. A, B and C 47. The anterior pituitary gland secretes… a. LH b. Oxytocin c. TSH d. A and C e. A, B and C 48. Which statement regarding the hypothalamus is FALSE? a. Hypothalamic neurohormones control the release of anterior pituitary hormones b. It is the source of renin, a key activator of the RAS (renin-angiotensin) system c. It is part of the diencephalon, a region between the brainstem and the cerebrum d. It is involved in osmoregulation and the behavioral drive for thirst e. It has many roles in the maintenance of homeostasis 49. The portal system that provides the vascular connection between the hypothalamus and the pituitary… a. Refers to two capillary beds joined by a portal vein b. Mediates the release of oxytocin and vasopressin from the posterior pituitary gland c. Enables hypothalamic releasing hormones to reach their target cells without first circulating throughout the body d. A and C e. A, B and C 50. A male bodybuilder is injecting himself with testosterone in an attempt to increase muscle mass. As a result of these injections, which of the following would you expect? a. Decreased testicular size b. Increased plasma concentrations of LH/FSH c. decreased plasma concentrations of LH/FSH d. A and Be. A and C 51. Michelle has decided that iodized salt is bad for her and goes on a low sodium, zero iodine diet. After 6 months of this diet you would predict that michelle has… a. Reduced plasma levels of thyroid hormone b. Increased levels of plasma TSH c. An enlarged thyroid gland d. A and C e. A, B and C 52. The posterior pituitary secretes… a. GnRH b. FSH c. TSH d. ACTH e. Oxytocin 53. The posterior pituitary secretes… a. Vasopressin b. TSH c. FSH d. ACTH e. GnRH 54. Which of the following is an example of negative feedback? a. LH/FSH levels are high in a neutered dog (neutered=gonads removed) b. TSH levels are low in a person taking exogenous thyroid hormone c. ACTH levels are low in a person taking a cortisol agonist d. A and C e. A, B and C 55. Which of the following is/are correct with respect to fat digestion and absorption? a. Micelles are formed in enterocytes with the assistance of bile salts b. Micelles are formed in the intestinal lumen with the assistance of bile salts c. Chylomicrons are formed in enterocytes with the assistance of bile salts d. Chylomicrons are formed in enterocytes and transported via the lymphatic system e. Both B and D 56. A drug that blocks the action of carbonic anhydrase in parietal cells would result in… a. A lower pH in the stomach during gastric digestion b. A higher pH in the stomach during gastric digestion c. An increase of active pepsin in the stomach d. Increased protein digestion in the stomach e. A and C57. Place the following structures in the order that bile salts would travel from their original synthesis, release into the GI tract, then back to the liver. a. Canaliculi (1) b. Hepatic portal vein (3) c. Duodenum (4) d. Ileum (5) e. Ductules (2) 58. A drug taken as a pill is going to pass through these structures in this order as it is cleared by the liver: a. Hepatic portal vein → sinusoids → ductules → canaliculi → bile duct → intestine b. Hepatic portal vein → canaliculi → ductules → sinusoids → bile duct →intestine c. Hepatic portal vein → sinusoids → canaliculi → ductules → bile duct →intestine d. Hepatic artery → sinusoids → canaliculi → ductules → bile duct → intestine e. Hepatic vein → sinusoids → canaliculi → ductules → bile duct → intestine 59. The sinusoids within the lobules of the liver… a. Transport secretions of hepatocytes into the central vein of each lobule b. Are the functional equivalent of capillaries (T) c. Are very porous allowing large amounts of material to move in and out d. A and C e. A, B, and C 60. Which of the following is the sequence of layers from the lumen to the outer wall of the digestive tract? 1. Mucosa 2. Submucosa 3. Muscularis externa 4. Serosa 61. The path taken by a molecule of glucose from absorption in the intestine until it reaches the general circulation would be best described as… a. Hepatic portal vein → hepatic vein → sinusoids → central vein of liver lobules → hepatic artery b. Hepatic portal vein → sinusoids→ central vein of the liver lobules → bile canaliculi → bile ductules → hepatic vein c. Hepatic portal vein → sinusoids → central vein of liver lobules → hepatic vein d. Hepatic portal vein → sinusoids → bile canaliculi → bile ductules → hepatic vein e. Hepatic artery → sinusoids → central vein of liver lobule → hepatic vein 62. Trypsin plays a key role in digestion because… a. It activates enteropeptidase in the intestinal brush border which in turn activates pancreatic enzymes b. It is activated by enteropeptidase in the intestinal brush border and then goes on to activate pancreatic enzymesc. It initiates protein digestion in the stomach d. It triggers release of acid by parietal cells 63. Which of the following events does NOT occur when you swallow? a. The upper esophageal sphincter closes b. The glottis and epiglottis close c. Respiration is inhibited d. The lower esophageal sphincter relaxes 64. Nutrient absorption occurs primarily in the a. Large intestine b. Small intestine c. Stomach d. Liver e. Stomach and small intestine 65. Chromatin, the genetic material within plant and animal tissues that we eat is digested, then absorbed as… a. Amino acids b. Monosaccharides c. Nucleosides d. A and C e. A, B and C 66. During the cephalic phase of digestion a. Parasympathetic activity to the stomach is increased b. The stomach responds to distention c. G-cells, ECL cells and parietal cells increase their rates of secretion d. A and C e. A, B and C 67. Negative feedback regulation of gastric acid secretion is provided by… a. The accumulation of short peptide chains and amino acids buffering gastric acid b. The action of H+ on parietal cells, causing reduced acid secretion c. The action of H+ causing decreased parasympathetic activity to parietal cells d. The action of H+ on D cells resulting in the release of somatostatin which inhibits secretion by G cells, ECL cells and parietal cells 68. Cholera (infection with vibrio cholera) causes… a. Osmotic diarrhea b. Diuresis c. Secretory diarrhea d. A and B e. B and C69. To deal with severe stomach ulcers, Adam had surgery to cut the branches of the vagus nerve that innervate the stomach. What effect would this have on his digestion? a. Adam would no longer have a gastric phase of digestion b. In anticipation of food, Adam would not be able to secrete gastric acid or increase gastric motility (decrease acid secretion) c. Without input from the sympathetic nervous system, digestion would be very much impaired d. Adam’s digestive tract would be regulated by the enteric nervous system and gut hormones e. Both B and D are true 70. During the gastric phase of digestion, secretion by the cells in the gastric epithelium is triggered by a. The sight, through or smell of food b. Increased parasympathetic activity to the stomach via the vagus nerve c. The entry of food into the stomach d. The release of acid by the parietal cells e. Distention the small intestine 71. Diarrhea associated with Vibrio cholerae infection is due to actions of bacterial toxins on ____ in intestinal epithelial cells a. Na+/K+- ATPases b. CFTR channels c. Proton pumps d. SGLT transporters e. NKCC transporters 72. During the postabsorptive (fasted) state, ____ stores of _____ are the first accessed source of glucose of the whole body a. Fat, adipose tissues b. Glycogen, the liver c. Fat, the liver d. Glycogen, muscle e. Glycogen, the pancreas 73. Ketogenesis is commonly associated with… a. High rated of β oxidation of fatty acids b. High carbohydrate/low protein diets c. Poorly regulated type 1 diabetes mellitus ( associated with ketoacidosis) d. A and C e. A, B, and C 74. Which of the following are catabolic processes?a. Glycogenolysis b. B-Oxidation c. Proteolysis d. A and C e. A, B and C 75. Which of the following are catabolic processes? a. Glycogenolysis b. Lipogenesis c. Proteolysis d. A and C e. A, B and C 76. During a 12-hour fast, skeletal muscle can contribute to plasma glucose homeostasis by… a. Catabolism of glycogen to pyruvate and/or lactate followed by export to the liver to be used as gluconeogenic substrates b. Glycogenolysis followed by export of glucose to the blood c. Breaking down proteins to amino acids and exporting them to blood, to be used by the liver as gluconeogenic substrates d. A and C e. A, B and C 77. Glucagon a. Is produced by alpha cells in the pancreas b. Stimulates gluconeogenesis c. Primarily targets the liver d. A and C e. A, B and C 78. Diets high in protein and fat and low in carbohydrates are considered ketogenic because a. They shift ones metabolism to increased rates of glycolysis (F) b. They require people to eat large quantities of ketones (F) c. They result in conversion of excess amino acids to ketone bodies d. They have the potential to increase the body’s pH e. They result in conversion of two-carbon units to ketone bodies HONESTLY I CANT EVEN CONFIRM THIS IS RIGHT IDK → michelle afshin help plz 79. When circulating levels of glucose and amino acids are high, and glycogenesis is occurring in the liver the body is in the a. Postabsorptive state b. Bulimic state c. Fasted state d. Stress statee. Fed state 80. With a fasting blood glucose level of 140 mg/dL and blood glucose of 200 mg/dL two hours after drinking a glucose solution you would be considered a. Hypoglycemic b. Either type I or II diabetic, can't determine which based on only this information c. Normal d. A type I diabetic e. A type II diabetic 81. In type 2 diabetes, plasma insulin concentrations are frequently normal, yet the target cells are less sensitive to the effects of insulin. This suggests that the target cells a. Have adequate internal supplies of glucose b. Are impermeable to insulin c. Cannot convert insulin to an active form d. May have a defect in their signal transduction pathway 82. If you had high blood glucose and high plasma insulin concentrations several hours after consuming a meal, you would most likely be a. Type II diabetic b. Normal c. Either type I or II diabetic, can't determine which based on only this information d. A type I diabetic 83. Insulin increases glucose uptake by causing GLUT4 transporters to localize to plasma membranes of a. Striated muscle cells b. Hepatocytes c. Adipose cells d. A and C e. A, B and C 84. Which of the following symptoms would you expect to observe in a person suffering from untreated type I diabetes mellitus a. Glucosuria b. Ketoacidosis c. Extreme thirst d. Hyperglyemia e. All of the above 85. A rise in cortisol would cause each of the following except one. Identify the EXCEPTION. a. Increased rate of glycogen utilization by the liver b. Higher levels of fatty acids in the blood c. Increased plasma ACTH levelsd. Enhanced rate of glucose synthesis by the liver e. Suppression of the immune system 86. Secondary hypercortisolism would be associated with a. ACTH-secreting pituitary tumor b. Cortisol secreting adrenal tumors c. Autoimmune destruction of adrenocortical cells d. ACTH-secreting adrenal tumors e. Side effects of being treated with cortisol for other conditions 87. Ahmed has been receiving long term treatment with prednisone, a cortisol agonist for his rheumatoid arthritis, an autoimmune disease. As a side effect, you would predict that Ahmed would have… a. Decreased plasma concentrations of ACTH (adrenocorticol tropic hormone) b. Elevated plasma concentrations of aldosterone c. Decreased size of his adrenal glands d. Both A and C e. A, B and C 88. Potential negative effects of chronic stress and the associated elevations in glucocorticoids include a. Increased proteolysis b. Increased lipogenesis (F b/c elevations in glucocorticoids increase lipolysis which is the breakdown of fat? And gensis is is creating fat?) c. Immune suppression d. A and C → CONFIRMED BY SAFA e. A, B and C 89. Rank the following in order of highest to lowest proportion of total body calcium 1. Bones 2. Intracellular fluid 3. Extracellular fluid 90. Which statement(s) is/are true about calcium? a. Renal reabsorption of calcium at the distal nephron is hormonally regulated b. Increasing the activity of osteoblasts would increase reabsorption of calcium from bone and increase concentrations in plasma c. Absorption of dietary calcium from the intestine is normally very efficient d. A and C e. A, B and C 91. Homeostatic responses to hypocalcemia include… a. Increased conversion of 25-hydroxy vitamin D3 to 1.25-dihydroxy vitamin D3 in the kidney b. Increased renal filtration of Ca2+ c. Increased PTH (parathyroid hormone)d. A and C e. A, B and C 92. Effects of epinephrine during a sympathetic flight or fight response differ from a cortisol-mediated chronic stress response in that… a. Epinephrine shifts metabolism toward catabolic reactions (F) (Both cortisol and epinephrine are catabolic hormones) b. Effects of epinephrine are slower and longer-lasting than those of cortisol (F) c. Epinephrine does not cause immune suppression (T) d. A and C e. A, B and C 93. Insulin-like growth factors… a. Are produced by the liver in response to growth hormone (GH) b. Increase glucose uptake in skeletal muscle and adipose cells c. Mediate many of the growth effects of GH d. A and C e. A, B and C (Pg 788) 94. Secondary hypercortisolism would be associated with… a. ACTH-secreting pituitary tumours b. cortisol -secreting adrenal tumours c. Side effects of being treated with cortisol after other conditions d. ACTH- secreting adrenal tumours e. Autoimmune destruction of adrenocortical cells 95. Jasmine has a mutation in the gene encoding the 21a-hydroxylase enzyme such that she is unable to synthesize normal amounts of adrenal steroids. You would expect her adrenal gland to be ____ and circulating ACTH levels to be _____. a. Normal size, low b. Enlarged, high c. Smaller than normal, high d. Smaller than normal, low e. Enlarged, low 96. Jasmine (in the above question) has the condition known as… a. Diabetes mellitus b. Cushing’s syndrome c. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia d. Diabetes insipidus e. Type 2 diabetes GURVIR:1) Cell bodies of afferent sensory neurons are located in a) Ventral root ganglia b) Propriospinal tracts c) Dorsal root ganglia d) Ventral horn of spinal cord e) Dorsal horns of spinal cord 2) Nociceptors … a) Are free nerve endings that express TRP channels b) Send information via unmyelinated or thinly myelinated fibres c) Send information to the brain via the spinothalamic tract d) A and C e) A, B and C 3) Glucagon … a) Stimulates gluconeogenesis b) Primarily targets skeletal muscle c) Primarily targets the liver d) A and C e) A, B and C 4) The anterior pituitary gland secretes… a) LH b) Prolactin c) TSH d) A and C e) A, B, and C 5) Michelle has decided that iodized salt is bad for her and goes on a low sodium, zero iodine diet. After 6 months of this diet you would predict that Michelle has… a) Reduced plasma levels of thyroid hormone b) Increased levels of plasma TSH c) An enlarged thyroid gland d) A and C e) A, B and C 6) Which of the following is an example of negative feedback? a) LH/FSH levels are low in a neutered dog (neutered=gonads removed) b) TSH levels are high in a person taking exogenous thyroid hormone c) ACTH levels are low in a person taking a cortisol agonist (Unit 5 lec 4) d) A and C e) A, B and CHARISH: 1. A drug taken by injection is going to pass through these structures in this order as it cleared by the liver: a. Hepatic portal vein → sinusoids → canaliculi → ductules → bile duct →intestine b. Hepatic portal vein → sinusoids → canaliculi → ductules → bile duct → intestine c. Hepatic portal vein → sinusoids → ductules → canaliculi → bile duct → intestine d. Hepatic portal vein → canaliculi → ductules → sinusoids → bile duct →intestine e. Hepatic artery → sinusoids → canaliculi → ductules → bile duct → intestine 2. After being activated by the ______ in the brush border of the small intestine ____then activated other pancreatic enzyme a. Enteropeptidase (enterokinase), pancreatic amylase b. Trypsinogen, enteropeptidase (enterokinase) c. Enteropeptidase (enterokinase), trypsin d. Enteropeptidase (enterokinase), pepsin e. H+, pepsin 3. The cranial nerve that provides parasympathetic innervation to most of your internal organs is the _____ nerve. a. Spinal b. Postganglionic c. Trigeminal d. Vagus e. Somatic motor 4. In terms of contributions to physiology _______ was to stress physiology as _________ was to the mapping of the human brain. a. Walter Cannon, Hans Selye b. Hans Selye, Walter Cannon c. Claude Bernard, Hans Selye d. Hans Selye, Wilder Penfield e. Walter Cannon, Wilder Penfield