Psycho pharm Exam 1 Practice Questions & Revised Correct Answers Updated & Already Passed

Psycho pharm Exam 1 Practice Questions & Revised Correct Answers Updated & Already Passed The PMHNP is evaluating a 68-year-old man for symptoms of major depression. While assessing the appearance of the patient, an obvious left-sided ptosis is noted. Which cranial nerve is directly linked to this condition? a. III b. IV c. V d. VI - ANSWER : A A 55-year-old woman has been referred for a psychiatric evaluation for a change in personality, lack of impulse control, and increasingly reckless decision-making. Which area of the brain would be responsible for these symptoms? a. Parietal lobe b. Broca's area c. Wernicke's area d. Frontal lobe - ANSWER : D A patient was recently started on a dopamine antagonist, and complains of breast tenderness and a milky discharge. What is the most likely explanation for these symptoms? a. Dopamine transmission in the nigrostriatal pathway b. Dopamine transmission in the tuberoinfundibular pathway c. Dopamine transmission in the mesolimbic pathway d. Dopamine increases throughout the basal ganglia - ANSWER : B A patient who was recently started on haloperidol for psychosis begins to manifest hand tremor, and a shuffling gait. What is the most likely explanation for these symptoms? a. Dopamine transmission in the nigrostriatal pathway b. Dopamine transmission in the tuberoinfundibular pathway c. Dopamine transmission in the mesolimbic pathway d. Dopamine increases throughout the basal ganglia - ANSWER : A