TEST BANK For Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care 3rd Edition By Bryan Bledsoe, Frederic Martini, Edwin Bartholomew | Complete Chapter 1-20 | 2023/2024

The organelles that manufacture proteins, using information provided by the DNA of the nucleus, are called what? A) Flagella B) Ribosomes C) Proteasomes D) None of the above Answer: B 20) The endoplasmic reticulum has what function(s)? A) Neutralization of drugs and toxins B) Storage and transport of molecules or materials C) Synthesis of proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids D) All of the above Answer: D ______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ Test Bank - Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3rd Edition (Bledsoe, 2020) WWW.TBSM.WS 15 | P a g e WWW.TBSM.WS Match each term to its definition. A) InterB) Mitochondria C) Golgi apparatus D) ProE) ExoF) Nucleus G) HemoH) Lysosomes I) PseudoJ) MetaK) EndoL) HyperM) AnaN) HypoO) Aerobic metabolism 21) Prefix meaning "apart" 22) Prefix meaning "inside" 23) Prefix meaning "outside" 24) Prefix meaning "blood" 25) Prefix meaning "above" 26) Prefix meaning "below" 27) Prefix meaning "between" 28) Prefix meaning "after" 29) Prefix meaning "before" 30) Prefix meaning "false" 31) Vesicles filled with digestive enzymes 32) Renews or modifies the cell membrane 33) Small organelles that provide energy for the cell 34) Also known as cellular respiration 35) Control center for cellular operations ______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ Test Bank - Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3rd Edition (Bledsoe, 2020) WWW.TBSM.WS 16 | P a g e WWW.TBSM.WS Answers: 21) M 22) K 23) E 24) G 25) L 26) N 27) A 28) J 29) D 30) I 31) H 32) C 33) B 34) O 35) F 36) Cells are the building blocks of all plants and animals. Answer: TRUE 37) Cells are nearly the smallest units of life. Answer: FALSE 38) Cells are produced by the division of preexisting cells. Answer: TRUE 39) Each cell maintains homeostasis. Answer: TRUE 40) Each organism maintains homeostasis only through the combined and coordinated actions of many types of cells and the organism's interaction with the environment. Answer: FALSE 41) Permeability is the property of a cell membrane that allows substances to enter but not leave the cytoplasm. Answer: FALSE 42) The osmotic pressure of a solution is an indication of the force of water movement into that solution as a result of solute concentration. Answer: TRUE 43) Crenation is the swelling of red blood cells that may eventually cause them to lyse, or burst. Answer: FALSE 44) In carrier-mediated transport, membrane proteins bind specific ions or organic substrates and carry them across the cell membrane. Answer: TRUE 45) The sodium-potassium exchange pump maintains homeostasis by ejecting sodium ions and recapturing lost potassium ions. Answer: TRUE ______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ Test Bank - Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3rd Edition (Bledsoe, 2020) WWW.TBSM.WS 17 | P a g e WWW.TBSM.WS Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3e (Bledsoe) Chapter 4 The Tissue Level of Organization 1) ________ are layers of cells that cover internal or external surfaces. A) Exithelia B) Epithelia C) Glands D) None of the above Answer: B 2) What is an essential function of epithelial cells? A) Produce specialized secretions B) Provide physical protection C) Control permeability D) All of the above Answer: D 3) A single layer of cells covering the basement membrane is called the what? A) Simple epithelium B) Single epithelium C) Stratified epithelium D) None of the above Answer: A 4) The several layers of cells providing protection above the basement membrane are called the what? A) Complex epithelium B) Stratified epithelium C) Layered epithelium D) None of the above Answer: B 5) In a ________ epithelium, the cells are thin and flat. A) cylindrical B) cuboidal C) squamous D) columnar Answer: C 6) A ________ epithelium withstands considerable stretching and lines the ureters and urinary bladder. A) simple B) cuboidal C) squamous D) transitional Answer: D ______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ Test Bank - Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3rd Edition (Bledsoe, 2020) WWW.TBSM.WS 18 | P a g e WWW.TBSM.WS 7) Which type of secretion involves the loss of cytoplasm and the secretory product? A) Epithelial B) Merocrine C) Apocrine D) Holocrine Answer: C 8) Mixing water and mucin to create mucus is an example of which form of secretion? A) Holocrine B) Merocrine C) Epithelial D) Apocrine Answer: B 9) The ________ glands secrete a watery solution containing enzymes. A) serous B) mucous C) mixed D) Both A and C Answer: D 10) ________ is an example of a connective tissue. A) Blood B) Fat C) Bone D) All of the above Answer: D 11) Which of the following is a function of connective tissue? A) Defense of the body B) Support and protection C) Transportation of materials D) All of the above Answer: D 12) ________ are responsible for producing and maintaining connective tissue fibers. A) Mast cells B) Fat cells C) Macrophages D) Fibroblasts Answer: D ______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ Test Bank - Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3rd Edition (Bledsoe, 2020) WWW.TBSM.WS 19 | P a g e WWW.TBSM.WS 13) ________ are responsible for engulfing damaged cells or pathogens that enter the tissue. A) Fibroblasts B) Mast cells C) Macrophages D) None of the above Answer: C 14) ________ are proteins that destroy invading microorganisms. A) Stem cells B) Antibodies C) Fibroblasts D) Antibiotics Answer: B 15) Tendons and ligaments are examples of what type of connective tissue? A) Adipose B) Strengthened C) Loose D) Dense Answer: D 16) The watery matrix in blood is called: A) lymph. B) a platelet. C) plasma. D) hematose. Answer: C 17) The red blood cell accounts for almost ________ of the volume of blood. A) two-thirds (66%) B) one-half (50%) C) one-third (33%) D) one-fourth (25%) Answer: B 18) ________ is found in the epiglottis and the outer ear. A) Osteo-cartilage B) Elastic cartilage C) Hyaline cartilage D) Fibrocartilage Answer: B ______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ Test Bank - Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3rd Edition (Bledsoe, 2020) WWW.TBSM.WS 20 | P a g e WWW.TBSM.WS 19) Which of the following is the most common type of cartilage? A) Fibrocartilage B) Osteo-cartilage C) Elastic D) Hyaline Answer: D 20) ________ is/are the covering that surrounds bones. A) Osteocytes B) Osseous tissue C) Periosteum D) Canaliculi Answer: C 21) The ________ membrane lines the digestive, respiratory, and reproductive tracts. A) cutaneous B) serous C) synovial D) mucous Answer: D 22) The pleural lining of the lungs is an example of what kind of membrane? A) Serous B) Cutaneous C) Synovial D) Mucous Answer: A 23) What type of muscle is also known as striated voluntary muscle because it is controlled by the nervous system and has a striated appearance? A) Cardiac B) Synovial C) Skeletal D) Smooth Answer: C 24) The majority of neural tissue is found where? A) Brain B) Spinal cord C) Nerve pathways D) Both A and B Answer: D ______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ Test Bank - Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3rd Edition (Bledsoe, 2020) WWW.TBSM.WS 21 | P a g e WWW.TBSM.WS 25) The first phase of tissue injury, when it is isolated from neighboring healthy tissue, is called what? A) Incarcerating B) Immune response C) Inflammation D) Regeneration Answer: C Match each term to its definition. A) periB) Vas C) Soma D) apoE) aF) Holos G) Os H) exoI) SquamaJ) Phagein 26) Prefix meaning "off" 27) Prefix meaning "without" 28) Prefix meaning "outside" 29) Plate or scale 30) Prefix meaning "around" 31) Body 32) Vessel 33) Entire 34) To eat 35) Bone Answers: 26) D 27) E 28) H 29) I 30) A 31) C 32) B 33) F 34) J 35) G ______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ Test Bank - Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3rd Edition (Bledsoe, 2020) WWW.TBSM.WS 22 | P a g e WWW.TBSM.WS 36) Epithelial cells are called avascular because they lack blood vessels. Answer: TRUE 37) Exocrine secretions are released into surrounding tissues; endocrine secretions are discharged onto the surface of the epithelium. Answer: FALSE 38) In a columnar epithelium, the cells are square. Answer: FALSE 39) Amniocentesis is an example of exfoliative cytology, or the study of cells shed from epithelial surfaces. Answer: TRUE 40) Connective tissue proper consists of cells and fibers within a watery ground substance. Answer: FALSE 41) Supportive connective tissue contains loosely packed and flexible fibers. Answer: FALSE 42) Elastic fibers are branched and wavy and after stretching will return to near their original length. Answer: FALSE 43) Connective tissue proper is categorized as either loose connective tissues or dense connective tissues. Answer: TRUE 44) Adipose tissue is a loose connective tissue containing large numbers of fat cells. Answer: TRUE 45) Permanent replacement of normal tissue is called fibrosis. Answer: TRUE ______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ Test Bank - Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3rd Edition (Bledsoe, 2020) WWW.TBSM.WS 23 | P a g e WWW.TBSM.WS Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3e (Bledsoe) Chapter 5 The Integumentary System 1) Thick skin, such as that on the soles of the feet, contains how many layers of cells? A) Three B) Five C) Four D) Six Answer: B 2) The ________ is the deepest epidermal layer. A) stratum germinativum B) initial stratum C) stratum corneum D) None of the above Answer: A 3) Which of the following forms the basic structure for hair, calluses, and nails? A) Caralin B) Keratin C) Kerilia D) Lucidum Answer: B 4) The layer of the epidermis comprised of flattened and dead epithelial cells is called the what? A) External stratum B) Stratum corneum C) Stratum germinativum D) None of the above Answer: B 5) ________ is an orange-yellow pigment that normally accumulates in epidermal cells. A) Carotene B) Androsin C) Melanoma D) Melanin Answer: A 6) ________ is a red-yellow or brown-black pigment that accumulates in the epidermal cells. A) Carotene B) Melanoma C) Androsin D) Melanin Answer: D ______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ Test Bank - Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3rd Edition (Bledsoe, 2020) WWW.TBSM.WS 24 | P a g e WWW.TBSM.WS 7) Which of the following is the layer of the dermis that consists of areolar tissue that supports and nourishes the epidermis? A) Epidermal junction layer B) Reticular layer C) Dermal border D) Papillary layer Answer: D 8) ________ is the medical condition characterized by the eruption of groups of vesicles along the dermatome of a sensory nerve. A) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome B) Toxic epidermal necrolysis C) Herpes zoster D) Exanthems Answer: C 9) The integument contains two types of exocrine glands, sweat and: A) sudoriferous. B) apocrine. C) sebaceous. D) lubricating. Answer: C 10) The primary function of merocrine sweat glands is what? A) To lubricate the skin B) To excrete odorous secretions C) To cool the surface of the skin D) None of the above Answer: C 11) A blood clot consists mainly of an insoluble network of: A) macrophages. B) fibrin. C) phagocytes. D) fibroblasts. Answer: B 12) An ________ is an injury where a flap of skin and tissues are torn loose or torn off. A) amputation B) avulsion C) abrasion D) None of the above Answer: B ______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ Test Bank - Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3rd Edition (Bledsoe, 2020) WWW.TBSM.WS 25 | P a g e WWW.TBSM.WS 13) A(n) ________ is a skin injury caused by heat, chemicals, electricity, or radiation. A) avulsion B) thermal variant C) burn D) None of the above Answer: C 14) Which of the following is a combination of fibrin, fibroblasts, and capillaries that forms during tissue repair after inflammation? A) Granulated enzymes B) Scar tissue C) Dermatitis D) Granulation tissue Answer: D ______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ Test Bank - Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3rd Edition (Bledsoe, 2020) WWW.TBSM.WS 26 | P a g e WWW.TBSM.WS Match each term to its definition. A) Luna B) Derma C) Keros D) Papilla E) Germinare F) Base G) Facere H) EpiI) Kyanos J) Onyx 15) Skin 16) Prefix meaning "above or over" 17) Blue 18) Moon 19) Basis 20) A nipple-shaped mound 21) Nail 22) To make 23) To start growing 24) Horn Answers: 15) B 16) H 17) I 18) A 19) F 20) D 21) J 22) G 23) E 24) C 25) The skin is the second largest body system behind the circulatory system. Answer: FALSE 26) The dermis stores small reserves of lipids, as well as vitamin D, which is a building block for a hormone that aids calcium uptake. Answer: FALSE 27) In order for a medication to be administered transdermally, it must be lipid-soluble. Answer: TRUE ______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ Test Bank - Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3rd Edition (Bledsoe, 2020) WWW.TBSM.WS 27 | P a g e WWW.TBSM.WS 28) A small amount of ultraviolet (UV) radiation is beneficial because it stimulates the synthesis of specific vitamins in the epidermis. Answer: TRUE 29) A bluish appearance of the skin is called cyanosis. Answer: TRUE 30) The erecting pili muscle forces hairs to stand up by pulling on the hair follicles. Answer: FALSE 31) The secretion of sebum inhibits the growth of bacteria. Answer: TRUE 32) An incision, or slender, straight cut, may heal faster than an abrasion. Answer: TRUE 33) A thickened area of scar tissue is called a keloid. Answer: TRUE 34) Sepsis, a widespread bacterial infection, is a rare but treatable cause of death in burn patients. Answer: FALSE ______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ Test Bank - Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3rd Edition (Bledsoe, 2020) WWW.TBSM.WS 28 | P a g e WWW.TBSM.WS Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3e (Bledsoe) Chapter 6 The Skeletal System 1) Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system? A) The storage of lipids in the white marrow B) The production of fats in the pale marrow C) The production of red blood cells within the red marrow D) None of the above Answer: C 2) The general shape of bones is: A) irregular (bones have complex shapes). B) short (bones are roughly equal in length and width). C) long (bones are longer than they are wide). D) All of the above Answer: D 3) Which of the following is an example of a flat bone? A) Clavicle B) Shoulder blades (scapulae) C) Humerus D) Vertebrae Answer: B 4) What is the central shaft of a long bone called? A) Periosteum B) Epiphyses C) Cancellous D) Diaphysis Answer: D 5) What is the expanded portion at each end of a long bone called? A) Periosteum B) Cancellous C) Diaphysis D) Epiphyses Answer: D 6) The outer surface of a bone is covered by a(n): A) diaphysis. B) periosteum. C) epiphyses. D) cancellous. Answer: B ______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ Test Bank - Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3rd Edition (Bledsoe, 2020) WWW.TBSM.WS 29 | P a g e WWW.TBSM.WS 7) ________ are the small channels that radiate through a bone, connecting it to nearby blood vessels. A) Canaliculi B) Osteocytes C) Lacunae D) Lamellae Answer: A 8) What is the basic functional unit of compact bone? A) Osteon B) Haversian system C) Osteolysis D) Both A and B Answer: D 9) ________ are the cells within a bone that help regulate calcium and phosphate by dissolving the bony matrix. A) Osteoclasts B) Osteocytes C) Osteoblasts D) None of the above Answer: A 10) ________ are the cells within a bone that help maintain normal bone structure by recycling calcium salts. A) Osteocytes B) Osteoblasts C) Osteoclasts D) None of the above Answer: A 11) The process of replacing other tissues with bone is called: A) calcification. B) matrixination. C) ossification. D) membranization. Answer: C 12) Which of the following plays an important part in normal calcium metabolism? A) Vitamin K B) Vitamin C C) Vitamin A D) Vitamin D3 Answer: D ______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ Test Bank - Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3rd Edition (Bledsoe, 2020) WWW.TBSM.WS 30 | P a g e WWW.TBSM.WS 13) What is the most abundant mineral in the human body? A) Calcium B) Phosphate C) Sodium D) Potassium Answer: A 14) Which of the following works with parathyroid hormone (PTH) to elevate calcium levels in the body? A) Calcitonin B) Calcium thyroxine C) Calcitriol D) Calcunin Answer: C 15) A partial displacement of a bone end from its position within a joint capsule is a what? A) Dislocation B) Fracture C) Subluxation D) Epiphyseal strain Answer: C 16) A ________ fracture has multiple bone fragments at the fracture site. A) comminuted B) greenstick C) segmental D) spiral Answer: A 17) What is the most commonly fractured bone in the body? A) Clavicle B) Femur C) Radius D) Scapula Answer: A 18) What fracture, involving the acetabulum, is commonly seen in the elderly? A) Proximal femur B) Lateral pelvis C) Hip D) All of the above Answer: D ______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ Test Bank - Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3rd Edition (Bledsoe, 2020) WWW.TBSM.WS 31 | P a g e WWW.TBSM.WS 19) The pelvic girdle is included in what division of the skeleton? A) Appendicular B) Axial C) Atial D) Vertebral Answer: A 20) The skull is composed of how many bones? A) 8 from the cranium, 12 from the face B) 12 from the cranium, 12 from the face C) 8 from the cranium, 14 from the face D) 6 from the cranium, 10 from the face Answer: C 21) The ________ bone forms the forehead and the roof of the orbits, or the bony recesses that contain the eyes. A) temporal B) occipital C) parietal D) frontal Answer: D 22) Which bones are on both sides of the skull and form the roof and superior walls of the cranium? A) Temporal B) Parietal C) Frontal D) Occipital Answer: B 23) The ________ connect(s) the cranial cavity with the vertebral canal, which is enclosed by the vertebral column. A) occipital condyles B) lambdoid suture C) foramen magnum D) suborbital foramen Answer: C 24) The site of articulation between the skull and the vertebral column is the: A) lambdoid suture. B) occipital condyles. C) suborbital foramen. D) foramen magnum. Answer: B ______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ Test Bank - Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3rd Edition (Bledsoe, 2020) WWW.TBSM.WS 32 | P a g e WWW.TBSM.WS 25) The ________ is the prominent bulge on the temporal bone that provides the site for the attachment of muscles that rotate or extend the head. A) mandibular fossa B) temporal fossa C) mastoid process D) styloid process Answer: C 26) The lateral wall of the orbit is formed by what facial bone? A) Conchae B) Lacrimal C) Zygomatic D) None of the above Answer: C 27) Which of the following is suspended below the skull and serves as a base for muscles associated with the larynx, tongue, and pharynx? A) Vomer B) Mandible C) Sphenoid D) Hyoid Answer: D 28) What is the fibrous connective tissue connecting the bones of the skull at birth called? A) Perminifactions B) Fontanels C) Cranial ossification D) All of the above Answer: B 29) Which of the following is an abnormal spinal curvature that may appear during childhood and adolescence? A) Kyphosis B) Scoliosis C) Lordosis D) All of the above Answer: D 30) The massive, weight-bearing portion of a vertebra is called the what? A) Vertebral canal B) Vertebral arch C) Vertebral body D) Intervertebral disc Answer: C ______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ Test Bank - Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3rd Edition (Bledsoe, 2020) WWW.TBSM.WS 33 | P a g e WWW.TBSM.WS 31) The ________ is the projection on the atlas (C1) that forms a pivot joint with the axis (C2) to allow a person to rotate their head side to side. A) dens B) odontoid process C) atlas process D) Both A and B Answer: D 32) The superior portion of the sternum is called the what? A) Sternal process B) Xiphoid process C) Manubrium D) Anubrium Answer: C 33) What bone articulates with the manubrium of the sternum? It is the only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton. A) Femur B) Humerus C) Scapula D) Clavicle Answer: D 34) The arm, or brachium, contains what single bone? A) Ulna B) Radius C) Scapula D) Humerus Answer: D 35) The elevated portion of the humerus that runs along the lateral border of the shaft is called the what? A) Deltoid tuberosity B) Coronoid fossa C) Trochlea D) Lateral epicondyles Answer: A 36) The olecranon, or the point of the elbow, is part of what bone? A) Ulna B) Humerus C) Radius D) None of the above Answer: A ______________________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________ Test Bank - Anatomy & Physiology for Emergency Care, 3rd Edition (Bledsoe, 2020) WWW.TBSM.WS 34 | P a g e WWW.TBSM.WS 37) How many bones make up the wrist, palm and fingers? A) 17 B) 27 C) 12 D) 22 Answer: B 38) The eight ________ bones make up the wrist. A) carpal B) tarsal C) metacarpal D) metatarsal Answer: A 39) The head of the femur connects with what curved surface of the pelvis? A) Iliac crest B) Acetabulum C) Sacroiliac joint D) Ossa coxae Answer: B 40) The ________ is the most superior and largest component of the coxal bone. A) pubis B) ischium C) ilium D) None of the above Answer: C 41) The tibia broadens at its distal end into what large process? A) Lateral malleolus B) Fibula C) Medial malleolus D) Anterior crest Answer: C 42) The patella connects to what point on the tibia just below the knee joint? A) Tibial tuberosity B) Fibular junction C) Patellar ligam