AAAE ACE Operations Module 4 Latest 2023 Already Passed

AAAE ACE Operations Module 4 Latest 2023 Already Passed What Federal Act requires anyone who releases a reportable quantity of a hazardous substance, to include slow releases over a 24-hour period, to immediately notify the National Response Center? The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) What Federal Act requires the development of emergency response plans that address fuel spills and exposures to hazardous waste? The Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA) What is a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)? A technical bulletin that describes how to use, handle, and dispose of specific chemical hazards What Federal Act(s) require MSDS be available and posted in all workplaces where hazardous materials exist? The Emergency Planning Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA) and the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) USDOT identifies hazardous materials using a 4-digit number denoting what information about the hazard? the first digit identifies one of nine hazmat classes; the last three digits indicate the exact material What type of fuel is in a fuel line colored black? jet fuel What do the four colors (blue, red, yellow, white) of the OSHA hazmat labeling system represent? blue - health hazard; red - fire hazard; yellow - reactive material; white - PPE required What do the numbers 0 through 4 represent in the OSHA hazmat labeling system? the degree of hazard; 0 - minimum; 1 - slight; 2 - moderate; 3 - serious; 4 - severe What does a letter (A to Z) represent in the OSHA hazmat labeling system? The type of PPE required Who is responsible for hazardous waste that exists on the airport? The airport operator What Federal Act covers the treatment, storage and disposition of used oil and other hazmat substances? The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act How long may hazmat be stored on site before treating or taking off site? 180 days (270 days if disposal plant is 200 miles away or farther) What is the fine if the emergency coordinator at an airport does not notify the NRC in the case of an emergency? $10,000, a year in jail or both How often must certificated airports inspect and ensure immediate corrective action concerning each tenant's fueling facilities? once every three months What is the fire triangle? combustible material; oxygen; ignition source Which has more explosive potential, Avgas or Jet-A? Avgas At what temperatures is Avgas most susceptible to ignition? -50 to 30F At what temperatures is Jet-A most susceptible to ignition? 100 to 165F What is a larger ignition risk, a partially full fuel truck or a mostly full fuel truck? Partially full, due to the greater mixture of fuel fumes and oxygen At what point do vapors given off from a material form an ignitable mixture? the flash point If a material has a flash point at or above 100F what is it considered? combustible (ex. Jet-A) If a material has a flash point below 100F or a vapor pressure not exceeding 40psi, what is it considered? flammable (ex. Avgas) At what temperature will a fuel ignite if compressed? the auto ignition temperature At what rate will flames spread once fuel is ignited? the flame spread rate How often must fuel tanks be checked for water (sumping)? daily Water is heavier than avgas and jet fuel; how long does it take for water to settle per foot of fuel tank depth? avgas - 15min ; JetA - 60min Since fuel must be filtered for microorganism growth, what pressure difference between the inner and outer portion of the filter indicates that the filter must be changed? 15psi What material is not recommended for above-ground fuel storage tanks? fiberglass What is one method to reduce underground fuel storage tank corrosion activity related to soil resistivity? cathodic protection What are two safety features commonly designed for above-ground fuel storage tanks? retainment dike or double wall allowing for 100-110% of tank capacity ; painting tanks white for heat absorption What plan is required by EPA for all fuel storage facilities? Spill Prevention, Control and Countermeasure (SPCC) plan What four responses could EPA take with regards to an environmental violation? informal response; formal administrative response; civil judicial response; criminal judicial response What four categories of criminal penalties can result from an environmental violation? negligent violation; knowing violation; knowing endangerment; false statements What four components make up a FOD management program? prevention; detection; removal; evaluation What are the four wildlife control strategies? 1. aircraft flight schedule modification 2. habitat modification 3. harassment 4. wildlife removal Almost three-quarters of all strikes occur at or below what AGL? 500ft How far from the airport should operations personnel monitor bird activity? 5 miles What two factors determine an airport's ARFF index? length of the most demanding aircraft serving the airport and number of average daily departures What is the minimum ARFF index level for a certificated airport? Index A How many average daily departures of the longest aircraft determine an airport's ARFF index? 5 ; if less than 5, then the index below the longest aircraft serving the airport applies How does a fire extinguishing agent put out a fire? prevents oxygen from mixing with the hydrocarbons, suppresses the release of fuel vapors, separates the combustible materials, and lowers the temperature of the fire What is the most common extinguishing agent on airfields? AFFF (Aqueous Film Forming Foam) When must ARFF equipment be available at an airport? 15 minutes before to 15 minutes after an air carrier operation If a piece of ARFF equipment needs repair or maintenance, how long may FAA allow to restore the proper index? 48 hours, with FAA concurrence What if a certificated airport cannot maintain ARFF Index A capability? air carrier operations must be suspended How quickly must ARFF respond to an emergency? One ARFF vehicle with all personnel in full protective gear must be able to release extinguishing agents at the midpoint of the furthest runway within three minutes of the alarm sounding; all other vehicles and personnel must arrive within 4 minutes How long must training records for ARFF personnel be kept? 24 months How often must ARFF personnel receive recurrent training? every 12 consecutive months to include one live-fire drill How often is the Airport Emergency Plan updated? every 12 months What provides a unified national response to disasters and emergencies? National Response Framework What does the National Response Framework build upon and what does it describe? Builds upon National Incident Management System (NIMS); describes how communities, tribes, states, fed gov, private sectors and nongov partners work together to coordinate national response and describes specific authorities and best practices for managing incidents How often must Class I certificated airports perform a full-scale emergency plan exercise? once every three years; intervening years there must be a tabletop exercise What are the four phases of disaster preparedness? Mitigation (actions that can prevent) Preparedness (enhance emergency response capabilities) Response (time-sensitive; four phases) Recovery (return to normal ops) What are the phases of Response in the disaster preparedness? discovery; verification; response; resolution; What should the airport operator do immediately in the event of an accident or significant incident that impacts airport operations and safety? Close the airport immediately What alert level involves a precautionary approach that would not normally cause serious difficulty or make the landing unsafe? Alert I What alert level involves an aircraft emergency that may result in injuries and aircraft damage? Alert II What alert level involves an actual aircraft accident? Alert III What are the five types of exercises? orientation seminar; drill; tabletop exercise; functional exercise; full-scale exercise At other than Class I airports, what are the exercise requirements? Annual tabletop exercises When may NTSB delegate an accident investigation to FAA? For aircraft weighing less than 12,500lbs What plan should airports have if experiencing 6 inches or more of snow annually? snow and ice control plan (SICP) When experiencing snow and ice conditions, what runway condition is the standard that FAA requires? no worse than wet condition When should snow and ice clearing operations commence? before accumulation is 1/2 inch for wet snow and 1 inch for dry snow What are snow clearance times based on? removing one inch of snow weighing up to 25lbs per cubic foot from the primary runway What is the term for a chemical or liquid used on water or snow to lower the point at which the mixture will freeze? freezing point depressant What is the limit of freezing point depression? the lowest temperature (eutectic temperature) an amount of chemical (eutectic composition) will melt ice; i.e. the eutectic point What is the green liquid used on aircraft during ice and snow operations? Type IV anti-icing solution; typically ethylene glycol thickened with a polymer; used after de-icing the aircraft surfaces What type of anti-icing are there? Type II (white or yellowish in color) Type III (no color determined) Type IV (green in color) What is the orange liquid used on aircraft during ice and snow operations? Type I de-icing fluid; typically propylene glycol heated to 180F; provides about 15 minutes of protection in snow conditions and 3-5 minutes for freezing rain What is the one-step and two-step procedure for deicing/anti-icing? one-step: remove and protect surface from refreezing two-step: after deicing, over spray of anti-icing fluid Is Type IV considered hazardous by EPA? Considered hazardous. Type IV has a higher toxicity than type I. Type I is considered harmless by EPA