BUSN 206 Abdominal Final Exam Questions and Answers 2022

BUSN 206 Abdominal Final Exam Questions and Answers 2022 Historically, the development of ultrasound began shortly after: a. Radio communication in World War I b. Sonar in World War II c. Nuclear testing in World War II d. The launching of Sputnik - answerb. Sonar in World War II The early applications of obstetric ultrasound were initiated by a. Joseph Holmes b. Ian Donald c. John Howry d. William Fry - answerb. Ian Donald Visualization of the cardiac structures in the heart was discovered by a. Joseph Holmes b. Ian Donald c. Hertz and Edler d. George Ludwig - answerc. Hertz and Edler Which one of the following statements about the role of sonographers is false? a.Sonographers perform ultrasound studies and gather diagnostic data independent of the physician b.Sonographers must possess intellectual curiosity and perseverance c. Sonographers must have a technical aptitude d. Sonographers must be able to communicate on different levels - answera.Sonographers perform ultrasound studies and gather diagnostic data independent of the physician The angle of reflection is equal to the a. Acoustic impedance b. Angle of incidence c. Refraction d. Image resolution - answerb. Angle of incidence The display mode that shows time along the horizontal axis and depth along the vertical axis is a. A mode b. B mode c. M mode d. Real time - answerc. M mode An example of subjective data in a health history is a. The physician notes bruising on the middle back b. The patient states he has back pain c. X-ray examinations show calcification in the pancreatic area d. Magnetic resonance imaging shows calcification in the pancreas - answerb. The patient states he has back pain Which one of the following statements is inappropriate for the patient interview process a. Assure the patient that the information will be confidential b. Be sure the patient understands English c. Explain how the patient will receive information about the results of the examination d. Always use the patient's first name to establish a friendly relationship - answerd. Always use the patient's first name to establish a friendly relationship The signs and symptoms for appendicitis include all of the following except a. Abdominal pain b. McBurney sign c. Nausea and vomiting d. Bright rectal bleeding - answerd. Bright rectal bleeding The enzyme that is released when fats and proteins reach the duodenum is a. Cholecystokinin b. Cholestasis c. Choledochal d. Cholesteremia - answera. Cholecystokinin The first step of urine formation is a. Nephron diffusion b. Glomerular filtration c. Albuminuria d. Homeostasis - answerb. Glomerular filtration Which one of the following is a carbohydrate enzyme a. Glucose b. Amylase c. Fatty acid d. Lipase - answerb. Amylase The items we look for during an ultrasound on the aorta include all of the following a. Diameter b. Calcification c. Thrombus d. Dissection e. All of the above - answere. All of the above Clinical indications for the ultrasound of the aorta may include all but a. Pulsatile abdominal mass b. Bruit c. Pain d. Loss of blood supply to legs e. Hypercoaguability - answere. Hypercoaguability An area in the aorta measuring 2.9cm is a. Normal b. Ecstatic c. Aneurismal d. Tortuous - answerb. Ecstatic An aneurysm in a vessel is times larger than the normal segment a. 1 b. 1.5 c. 2 d. 2.5 - answerb. 1.5 aneurysms involve all three layers a. True b. False c. Mural d. Saccular - answera. True Surgery is suggested for aneurysm's measuring cm or larger a. 3 b. 5 c. 8 d. 2 - answerb. 5 Risk factors for aneurysm include all of the following except a. Smoking b. Family history c. COPD d. Diabetes - answerd. Diabetes The procedures utilized in correcting the AAA are a. Angioplasty b. Endografting c. Open repair d. Bypass grafting - answerTwo possible answers: b. Endografting c. Open repair Blood escapes through a hole in the intima of the vessel wall but is contained by the deeper layers of the aorta or by the adjacent tissue is called a. Aneurysm b. Pseudoaneurysm c. AV fistula d. Paraaortic nodes - answerb. Pseudoaneurysm Masses that can stimulate AAA are all of the following except a. Retroperitoneal tumor b. AV fistula c. Fibrous uterus d. Paraaortic nodes - answerb. AV fistula The IVC's proximal portion is a. The part near the iliacs b. The part near the liver c. The part near the renal arteries d. The part entering the right atria - answera. The part near the iliacs Reasons for an abnormal IVC on an ultrasound include a. Thrombus b. Tumor c. Dilation d. Congenital abnormality e. All of the above - answere. All of the above What is the purpose of an IVC filter (fill in the blank) - answerTo prevent a clot from entering the lungs from the lower extremities Examples of nonresistive arteries are all of the following except a. Internal carotid artery b. External carotid artery c. Renal d. Hepatic - answerb. External carotid artery Budd Chiari is caused seen as (worded per exam) a. Thrombus in IVC or hepatic veins b. Thrombus in aorta and tributaries c. Thrombus in renal veins d. Thrombus in renal arteries - answera. Thrombus in IVC or hepatic veins The portal triad contains all but a. Portal vein b. Aorta c. Hepatic artery d. Bile duct - answerb. Aorta The abdominal aorta starts at what level a. Diaphragm b. Iliacs c. Umbilicus d. Sternum - answera. Diaphragm To control the growth in an abdominal aorta, one must control what a. Temperature b. Blood pressure c. Oxygen levels d. Red blood cells - answerb. Blood pressure A sudden drop in hematocrit may be a sign of what a. Budd Chiari b. Aortic rupture c. Paraaortic nodes d. Necrosis - answerb. Aortic rupture If you see an aneurysm in the aorta, the minimum measurements you will take in a sagittal plane will be what a. Single level, one proximal, one mid, one distal, each iliac b. Proximal, mid, distal, iliacs, and one at the aneurysm c. Proximal, mid, distal, before aneurysm, max aneurysm, below aneurysm and iliacs d. Single level max aortic size - answerc. Proximal, mid, distal, before aneurysm, max aneurysm, below aneurysm and iliacs Budd Chiari syndrome is rare disorder caused by obstruction of the a. Portal veins b. Superior mesenteric vein c. Hepatic veins d. Splenic vein - answerc. Hepatic veins Echinococcal cysts have the highest incidence in countries in which a. Fishing is common b. Rock climbing is prevalent c. Poultry is abundant d. Sheep grazing is common - answerd. Sheep grazing is common The most common benign tumor of the liver is a. Mesenchymal hamartoma b. Adenoma c. Cavernous hemangioma d. Infantile hemangioendothelioma - answerc. Cavernous hemangioma Patients who have hepatocellular carcinoma are likely to have had a. Hemochromatosis b. Adenosis c. Cirrhosis d. Carcinosis - answerc. Cirrhosis The most common form of neoplastic involvement of the liver is a. Metastases b. Hepatocellular carcinoma c. Hepatoma d. Hamartoma - answera. Metastases Diminished vascular structures within the liver parenchyma most likely represent a. Obstructive portal disease b. Cirrhosis c. Budd Chiari syndrome d. Acute viral hepatitis - answerb. Cirrhosis The falciform ligament extends from the umbilicus to the diaphragm in a parasagittal plane containing the a. Ligamentum venosum b. Ligamentum teres c. Quadrates ligamentum d. Ligamentum falciform - answerb. Ligamentum teres Which one of the following tumors consists of large blood-filled spaces a. Adenoma b. Hamartoma c. Ewing angioma d. Cavernous hemangioma - answerd. Cavernous hemangioma In glycogen storage disease, type I is the most common and is also known as disease a. von Gierk b. von Gussel c. von Gerpe d. von Slurpie - answera. von Gierk The amebic abscess may reach the liver through the a. Hepatic artery b. Gastroduodenal artery c. Hepatorectal artery d. Portal vein - answerd. Portal vein The portion of the liver that is not covered by the peritoneum is termed a. Quadrate lobe b. Caudate lobe c. Riedel's lobe d. Bare area e. Left lobe - answerd. Bare area The liver is covered by a thick membrane of collagenous fibers intermixed with elastic elements. This membrane is called a. Glisson's capsule b. Gerota's fascia c. Bowman's capsule d. Adipose capsule e. Crosby's capsule - answera. Glisson's capsule The most common benign neoplasm of the liver is a. Hemangioma b. Angiomyolipoma c. Focal nodular hyperplasia d. Abscess e. Adenoma - answera. Hemangioma One can image all of the following in a case of end stage liver disease except a. Ascites b. Small atrophied liver c. Biliary dilation d. Portal hypertension e. Echogenic nodular liver - answerc. Biliary dilation A 50 year old female with a long history of alcoholism presents with increased abdominal girth. A sonogram of the abdomen is performed and the most probable finding is a. Liver metastases b. Massive ascites with a small echogenic liver c. Hepatoma d. Gallstones with a mass in the lumen of the gallbladder e. Dilated intrahepatic biliary ducts - answerb. Massive ascites with a small echogenic liver A patient presents with ampulla of Vater obstruction, distension of the gallbladder, and painless jaundice. This is associated with a. Hydropic gallbladder b. Choledochal cyst c. Courvoisier's sign d. Hartmann's pouch e. Kehr's sign - answerc. Courvoisier's sign Identify the gastrointestinal peptide hormone, which stimulates gallbladder contraction a. Gastrin b. Insulin c. Lipase d. Cholecystokinin e. Alkaline phosphatase - answerd. Cholecystokinin A patient presents with a dilated interhapatic duct, dilated gallbladder, and dilated common bile duct. Identify the level of obstruction this is most characteristic of a. Proximal common bile duct b. Distal common bile duct c. Distal common hepatic duct d. Cystic duct e. Neck of the gallbladder - answerc. Distal common hepatic duct A fold at the fundal portion of the gallbladder is usually called a. Hartman's pouch b. Juncitonal fold c. Valves of Heister d. Phrygian cap e. Pouch of Douglas - answerd. Phrygian cap A patient presents with empyema of the gallbladder, the sonographer should expect to find a. Pus within the gallbladder b. Common bile duct obstruction c. Stones within the gallbladder d. Abscess surrounding the gallbladder e. Duplication of the gallbladder - answera. Pus within the gallbladder A 42 year old female presents postcholecystectomy with RUQ pain, elevated serum bilirubin, and bilirubin in her urine. This is best characteristic of a. Hepatitis b. Stone, tumor, or stricture causing obstruction of the bile duct c. Small common duct stone less than 5mm in diameter d. Alkaline phosphatase will be normal e. Pancreatic pseudocyst - answerb. Stone, tumor, or stricture causing obstruction of the bile duct A cause of a small gallbladder is a. Prolonged fasting b. Insulin dependent diabetes c. Chronic cholecystitis d. Hydrops e. Ascites - answerc. Chronic cholecystitis Nonshadowing, nonmobile, echogenic foci imaged within the gallbladder lumen are most likely a. Polyps b. Calculi c. Biliary gravel d. Sludge ball e. Thin bile - answera. Polyps Hydrops of the gallbladder is a. A small contracted gallbladder b. A gallbladder with a thicken wall c. A thick wall gallbladder filled with stones d. Congenital duplication of the gallbladder e. An enlarged gallbladder - answere. An enlarged gallbladder A 44 year old patient presents with painless jaundice and palpable RUQ mass. This is most characteristic of a. Acute hepatitis b. Cirrhosis c. Porcelain gallbladder d. Courvoisier gallbladder e. Klatskin tumor - answerd. Courvoisier gallbladder A six year old child presents with recurrent fever, RUQ pain, and jaundice. An abdominal sonogram is performed. The liver and gallbladder appear normal but a 2cm cyst is seen communicating with the CBD. This cystic structure most likely represents a. A Choledochal cyst b. A pseudocyst c. An aortic aneurysm d. A mucocele e. Hydatid cyst - answera. A Choledochal cyst Calcification of the gallbladder wall is called a. Cholesterolosis b. Courvoisier gallbladder c. Hydropic gallbladder d. Porcelain gallbladder - answerd. Porcelain gallbladder The causes of a large gallbladder include all of the following except a. Adenomyomatosis b. Pancreatic carcinoma c. Diabetes mellitus d. Fasting patient e. Common bile duct obstruction - answera. Adenomyomatosis In cases of choledocholithiasis, stones tend to lodge in the a. Pancreatic duct b. Common bile duct c. Ampulla of Vater d. Common hepatic duct - answerc. Ampulla of Vater A Phrygian cap of the gallbladder is a. Partial septation b. Calcification of the gallbladder wall c. Septations within the organ d. Folding of the fundus - answerd. Folding of the fundus Gas-forming bacteria in the gallbladder appear on ultrasound as a. Dilated round shape b. Nonshadowing echogenic mass c. Localized dilation d. Bright echo with a comet tail artifact - answerd. Bright echo with a comet tail artifact Classic symptoms of the gallbladder disease include all of the following except a. Hematuria b. RUQ pain c. Right shoulder pain d. Nausea and vomiting - answera. Hematuria Thickening of the gallbladder wall may be caused by all of the following except a. Hepatitis b. Pancreatitis c. Adenomyomatosis d. Cholecystitis - answerb. Pancreatitis A fusiform dilation of the common bile duct that causes obstruction is known as a. Choledochal cyst b. Adenomyomatosis c. Cholangitis d. Phrygian cap - answera. Choledochal cyst Inflammation f the gallbladder is a. Cholecystitis b. Choledocholithiasis c. Cholesterosis d. Adenomyomatosis - answera. Cholecystitis The most common location of pancreatic pseudocyst a. Lesser sac b. Porta hepatis area c. Groin d. Splenic hilum e. Mediastinum - answera. Lesser sac If a mass in the area of the pancreatic head is found, what other structure should be examined sonographically a. The liver b. The IVC c. The spleen d. The kidney e. The bowel - answera. The liver The most common primary carcinoma of the pancreas is a. Insulinoma b. Cystadenocarcinoma c. Adenocarcinoma d. Pancreatic pseudocyst e. Lymphoma - answerc. Adenocarcinoma In comparison to the normal adult, the pancreas in children will be relatively a. More echogenic b. Less echogenic c. The same echogenicity d. Larger and less echogenic e. Complex - answerd. Larger and less echogenic An abdominal sonogram is performed and there is a suggestion of a mass in the head of the pancreas. Identify the other structures that should be evaluated a. The biliary system and gallbladder to evaluate biliary obstruction b. The hepatic artery and splenic artery to document dilatation c. The kidneys to evaluate renal obstruction d. Liver to evaluate focal masses e. Spleen to document size - answera. The biliary system and gallbladder to evaluate biliary obstruction An older man with a history of alcoholism is recently diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. His hematocrit and hypotension levels are decreased. Your differential diagnosis includes a. Hemorrhagic pancreatitis b. Cholecystitis c. Pseudocyst d. Chronic pancreatitis - answera. Hemorrhagic pancreatitis A patient with painless jaundice, weight loss, and a decrease in appetite should be evaluated for a. Cholecystitis b. Adenocarcinoma of the pancreas c. Pancreatitis d. Pancreatic pseudocyst - answerb. Adenocarcinoma of the pancreas Clinical signs and symptoms in acute pancreatitis include all of the following except a. Severe abdominal pain radiating to the back b. Severe abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder c. Elevated amylase d. Nausea and vomiting - answerb. Severe abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder A most common cause of acute pancreatitis in the United States is a. Colitis b. Alcohol intake c. Biliary tract disease d. Pancreatic malignancy - answerc. Biliary tract disease The pancreas is reflective in its sonographic appearance because of the multiple a. Islets of Langerhans b. Cooper ligaments c. Small glands or acini d. Fat between the lobules - answerd. Fat between the lobules The persistence of the dorsal and ventral pancreas with the head encircling the duodenum is called a. Hypoplasia b. Cystic fibrosis c. Agenesis d. Annular pancreas - answerd. Annular pancreas A condition that causes increased secretion of abnormal mucus by the exocrine gland is a. Cystic fibrosis b. Fibrocystic disease of the pancreas c. Diabetes d. Cystic mucosal disease - answera. Cystic fibrosis Gallstones are present in 40% to 60% of patients with a. Chronic pancreatitis b. Annular pancreas c. Cystic fibrosis d. Acute pancreatitis - answerd. Acute pancreatitis In cases of acute pancreatitis, the parenchyma of the pancreas generally appears a. Homogeneous b. Echogenic c. Calcified d. Hypoechoic - answerd. Hypoechoic The pancreas is found behind the omental sac a. Greater b. Inferior c. Superior d. Lesser - answerd. Lesser The head of the pancreas lies a. Anterior to the liver b. Posterior to the aorta c. Medial to the duodenum d. Lateral to the IVC - answerc. Medial to the duodenum The passes through a groove posterior to the pancreatic head a. Common bile duct b. Gastroduodenal artery c. Hepatic duct d. SMV - answera. Common bile duct The tail of the pancreas is located a. Posterior to the left kidney, near the splenic hilum b. Anterior to the left kidney, near the splenic hilum c. Posterior to the right kidney, near the liver hilum d. Anterior to the right kidney, near the liver hilum - answerb. Anterior to the left kidney, near the splenic hilum The primary pancreatic duct is the duct of a. Santorini b. Ampulla c. Vater d. Wirsung - answerd. Wirsung Parapelvic cysts are located in the a. Renal hilum b. Renal cortex c. Lower pole d. Pararenal space - answera. Renal hilum The most common solid renal mass found in childhood is a. Renal cell carcinoma b. Angiomyolipoma c. Wilm's tumor d. Von Hippel-Lindau tumor - answerc. Wilm's tumor Fusion of the lower pole of the kidneys is called a. Cross-renal ectopia b. Pelvic kidney c. Supernumerary kidney d. Horseshoe kidney - answerd. Horseshoe kidney The most echogenic portion of the kidney is (are) the a. Cortex b. Sinus c. Medullary pyramids d. Parenchyma - answerb. Sinus A cortical bulge in the lateral border of the kidney is called a(n) a. Junctional parenchmal defect b. Dromedary hump c. Extrarenal pelvis d. Column of Bertin - answerb. Dromedary hump A dilated renal pelvis without ureteral dilation is observed in patients with a. Hydronephrosis b. Posterior urethral valve obstruction c. Ureteropelvic junction obstruction d. Ureterocele - answerc. Ureteropelvic junction obstruction Which one of the following clinical findings is the most likely reason for a renal artery duplex examination a. Hypertension b. Oliguria c. Hematuria d. Severe flank pain - answera. Hypertension A renal sonogram is performed. The findings of hypoechoic areas adjacent to the renal sinus is most consistent with a. Bifid renal pelvis b. Renal pyramid c. Column of Bertin d. Junctional parenchymal defect - answerb. Renal pyramid A common finding in people over 50 years of age is a. Renal calculi b. Renal cysts c. Multicystic disease d.Hypernephroma - answerb. Renal cysts Renal vein thrombosis may be visualized in patients with a. Pyelonephritis b. Renal calculi c. Renal cell carcinoma d. Angiomyolipoma - answerc. Renal cell carcinoma The process of disposing metabolic wastes is called a. Urea b. Excretion c. Deamination d. Urination - answerb. Excretion The kidneys are located in the a. Peritoneal cavity b. Retroperitoneal cavity c. Perirenal cavity d. Perirenal space - answerb. Retroperitoneal cavity The left kidney is in contact with the a. Spleen, pancreas, and gallbladder b. Spleen, gallbladder, and duodenum c. Pancreas, colon, and porta hepatis d. Spleen, pancreas, colon, and jejunum - answerd. Spleen, pancreas, colon, and jejunum The right kidney is in contact with the a. Spleen, colon, and adrenal gland b. Liver, colon, and adrenal gland c. Liver, pancreas, and gallbladder d. Liver, gallbladder, and splenic flexure - answerb. Liver, colon, and adrenal gland A triangular-shaped lesion on the peripheral border f the kidney most likely represents a(n) a. Renal tumor b. Artifact from rib c. IVC compression d. Junctional parenchymal defect - answerd. Junctional parenchymal defect The left renal vein courses a. Posterior to the IVC b. Anterior to the IVC c. Anterior to the aorta d. Anterior to eh SMA - answerc. Anterior to the aorta Renal sonography is not helpful in evaluating a. Obstructive uropathy b. Cyst formation c. Renal function d. Angiomyolipoma - answerc. Renal function A potential space located between the liver edge and right kidney is a. Morison's pouch b. Douglas' pouch c. Cul-de-sac d. Winhauer space - answera. Morison's pouch Pyonephrosis refers to the presence of a. Blood in a dilated collecting system b. Pus in a dilated collected system c. Urine in a dilated collecting system d. A perinephric abscess - answerb. Pus in a dilated collected system A benign vascular fatty tumor of the kidney is called a. Angiomyolipoma b. Hypernephroma c. Neuroblastoma d. Lymphoma - answera. Angiomyolipoma Hydronephrosis may be best demonstrated sonographically by which one of the following patterns a. Distorted shape of the kidney outline b. Multiple cystic masses throughout the renal parenchyma c. Fluid-filled pelvocaliceal collecting system d. Hyperechoic pelvocaliceal collecting system - answerc. Fluid-filled pelvocaliceal collecting system Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease may be characterized by all of the following statements except a. The disease is latent until the fourth or fifth decade of life b. The severity of the disease varies, depending on the genotype c. The disease may be associated with cysts in the liver, pancreas, and spleen d. The involved kidneys are small and extremely echogenic - answerd. The involved kidneys are small and extremely echogenic The most common location of renal ectopia is in the a. Pelvis b. Intrathoracic c. Epigastric region d. Retroperitoneum - answera. Pelvis Which one of the following disorders does not produce a complex sonographic pattern a. Infected cyst b. Hemorrhagic cyst c. Hematomas d. Congenital simple cyst - answerd. Congenital simple cyst Which one of the following describes a bladder diverticulum a. Cystic enlargement of the bladder orifice b. Echogenic mass of the bladder wall c. Herniation of the bladder wall d. Focal thickening of the bladder wall - answerc. Herniation of the bladder wall Which one of the following statements about the spleen is false a. The spleen lies inferior to the diaphragm b. The normal adult spleen measures approximately 7cm in width c. The spleen is located within the retroperitoneum d. The spleen lies in the posterior to the hypochondrium - answerc. The spleen is located within the retroperitoneum Splenomegaly may result from all of the following except a. Trauma b. Congestion c. Subphrenic abscess d. Collagen vascular disease - answerc. Subphrenic abscess An abnormal decrease in platelets may be the result of a(n) a. Infection b. Bone marrow disorder c. Internal hemorrhage d. Allergic reaction - answerc. Internal hemorrhage In the early stages of sickle cell anemia the spleen generally appears a. Atrophied b. Heterogeneous c. Enlarged d. Hyperechoic - answerc. Enlarged Which one of the following statements describes the correct anatomic location f the structures adjacent to the spleen a. The diaphragm is anterior, lateral, and inferior to the spleen b. The fundus of the stomach and lesser sac are medial and posterior to the splenic hilum c. The left kidney lies inferior and medial to the spleen d. The right adrenal and kidney lie superior to the spleen - answerc. The left kidney lies inferior and medial to the spleen Splenic infarction is most commonly the result of a. Cardiac emboli b. Splenomegaly c. Splenic trauma d. Pneumonia - answera. Cardiac emboli When accessory spleens are present they are usually located a. At the inferior margin of the spleen b. On the posterior aspect of the spleen c. Near the hilum of the spleen d. Near the kidney - answerc. Near the hilum of the spleen The splenic vein courses along the posterior border of the a. Spleen b. Kidney c. Pancreas d. Adrenal gland - answerc. Pancreas Primary tumors that may metastasize to the spleen originate from all of the following structures except a. Kidney b. Ovary c. Stomach d. Brain - answerd. Brain The best patient position to evaluate the spleen is a. Supine b. Left lateral decubitus c. Left posterior oblique d. Right decubitus - answerd. Right decubitus Which one of the following symptoms is the most symptom in patients with a splenic hemartoma a. Asymptomatic b. Epigastric pain c. Abdominal pain d. RUQ pain - answera. Asymptomatic A spleen that has migrated from its normal location is termed a. Accessory spleen b. Wandering spleen c. Ectopic spleen d. Splenomegaly - answerb. Wandering spleen In the adult, splenomegaly is diagnosed when the lengthof the spleen exceeds cm a. 11 b. 12 c. 13 d. 14 - answerc. 13 Atrophy of the spleen may be found in all of the following except a. Normal individuals b. Wasting diseases c. Sickle cell anemia d. Cirrhosis - answerd. Cirrhosis A chronic disease of unknown causes that involves all bone marrow elements is a. Thalassemia b. Polycythemia vera c. Leukemia d. Hodgkin disease - answerb. Polycythemia vera