Basic Psychology Exam Pack

The tutor for the first-year psychology group is dealing with the topic of impulse conduction in the human nervous system. After the group discussion, the tutor asks the students the following questions to test their knowledge of the study material. The part of the neuron that is responsible for receiving information signals from other neurons is called . 1. Myelin sheath 2. boutons 3. dendrites 4. soma Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 88 Reasoning: The soma receives messages from other neurons through its dendrites. Question 2 The part of the neuron that facilitates synaptic transmission of a signal to another neuron is called . 1. dendrites 2. boutons 3. axon 4. myelin sheath Answer: The correct answer is 2 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 90 Reasoning: The bouton vesicles of the telondendron release the neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. Question 3 The electrical charge resulting from the difference between the positive and negative ions outside and inside the cell membrane is called . 1. the action potential 2. a threshold 3. the resting membrane potential 4. the refractory period Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 67 Reasoning: The resting membrane potential is an electrical charge brought about by the difference between the positive and negative ions inside and outside the neuron. This is also called a condition of readiness. Question 4 Which of the following statement(s) about the neuron, based on the diagram is (are) correct? 1. In accordance with all-or-nothing-law, neurons A, B, C and D will conduct an impulse at exactly the same speed, or not at all 2. In comparison with neurons A, C and D, neuron B can conduct impulses at the highest speed and amplitude 3. In comparison with neurons A, B and C, neuron D will conduct impulses at the highest frequency 4. 1 and 3 Answer: The correct answer is 2 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 70 Reasoning: Although the strength and speed of an impulse is constant in a particular neuron, it can vary with nerve fibres of different thickness. The larger the nerve fibre (the greater the diameter or width), the stronger the impulse and the faster it is conducted. Question 5 In the myelinated neuron, the myelin sheaths are separated by a small gap called (an) that facilitates the neural impulse to jump from one point to another. 1. threshold 2. axon 3. synaptic cleft 4. nodes of Ranvier Answer: The correct answer is 4 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 89 Reasoning: The gaps (approximately 1 micrometer wide) formed between myelin sheath cells along the axons are called Nodes of Ranvier. Since fat serves as a good insulator, the myelin sheaths speed the rate of transmission of an electrical impulse along the axon. Question 6 Low serotonin levels are associated with just as dopamine deficiency is associated with Parkinson’s disease. 1. seasonal depression 2. muscle spasm 3. suppression of pain 4. mania Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 75 Reasoning: Insufficiency of dopamine in the brain contributes to Parkinson’s disease; Low serotonin levels is associated with seasonal depression. Question 7 Some students in your group are still confused and request the tutor to provide a different kind of presentation of the nervous system that would make matters clearer. You think that the information can best be represented in . A. a flow chart, showing how the different structures are related B. a flow chart, illustrating the process of how the brain works C. an expandable tree structure, indicating the hierarchical nature of the nervous system D. an expandable tree structure, because different branches can be expanded when more detail is required E. a flow chart, because detailed information can be presented at the outset F. an expandable tree structure, because complex information cannot be represented in a flow chart 1. A, B and C 2. C, D and F 3. A and E 4. C and D Answer: The correct answer is 4 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 118 Reasoning: Note that option 1 is incorrect by default – as A and B refers to a flow chart while C refers to an expandable tree structure. A flowchart is used when the aim is to represent or model complicated situations, especially when one wants to represent more than one view of a situation. Therefore, statement F is factually false and eliminated, thus eliminating option 2. Option 3 is eliminated; while a flow chart can present detailed information – this is not presented at the outset. Question 8 Which of the following illustrates the correct sequence of events in the process of synaptic transmission? 1. Nerve impulse stimulates boutons, neurotransmitter diffuses across synaptic cleft, vesicles attach to presynaptic membrane 2. Nerve impulse stimulates boutons, transmitter deactivated by boutons, electrical changes in receiving cell 3. Nerve impulse stimulates boutons, vesicles attach to membrane, neurotransmitters released and attach to receptors on postsynaptic membrane 4. Nerve impulse stimulates boutons, neurotransmitters attach to receptors, neurotransmitters cross synaptic cleft Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: Tutorial Letter 201/1/2018 Reasoning: This is another question that requires an understanding of the impulse transmission. Option 3 provides the correct sequence of events in the process of synaptic transmission of an impulse. Option 1 is incorrect because the vesicles attach to the pre-synaptic membrane before the neurotransmitters are released and diffuse across the synaptic cleft. If a neurotransmitter is deactivated by the boutons, there will be no electrical change in the receiving neuron and therefore option 2 is incorrect. Option 4 is also incorrect because neurotransmitters have to cross the synaptic cleft first before they can attach to the receptors in the postsynaptic membrane. Question 9 The function of this lobe allows you to recognise elements of an object in the visual field and integrate them into a meaningful whole. 1. Frontal lobe 2. Temporal lobe 3. Parietal lobe 4. Occipital lobe Answer: The correct answer is 4 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pp. 79-80 Reasoning: The frontal lobe (option 1) is responsible for motor movement, including the production of speech. This option is therefore eliminated. The temporal lobe (option 2) is responsible for the perception of sound and to understand spoken words. This option is therefore eliminated. The parietal lobe (option 3) is responsible for somatosensory perception, i.e. touch, temperature, pressure and pain. This option is therefore eliminated. The occipital lobe (option 4) is responsible for the perception of vision. This is the correct option. Question 10 The tutor asks the students on the group site what determines whether a neurotransmitter will have an inhibitory or excitatory effect on the synaptic process. One student answers that it depends on the nature of the neurotransmitter. This statement . 1. does not provide the correct answer because it is too vague 2. is correct because the effect depends on the quantity of the neurotransmitter in relation to the enzyme that destroys it. 3. is partially correct, because other factors also play a role 4. is incorrect because the effect depends on the ratio of inhibitory to excitatory neurotransmitters in a specific synapse Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pp. 73-74 Reasoning: Whether a neurotransmitter has an excitatory or inhibitory effect depends on: • the nature of the neurotransmitter • the place where it acts • the quantity of the neurotransmitter in relation to the enzyme that destroys it • the amount of inhibitory neurotransmitters in relation to the amount of excitatory neurotransmitters at a particular synapse. Question 11 The main function of this structure is to distribute motor fibres to the muscles and to convey somatosensory information to the brain. It can work independently of the brain as a result of reflexive control circuits. This is a description of the . 1. spinal cord 2. thalamus 3. somatic nervous system 4. cerebellum Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 77 Reasoning: The spinal cord has motor and sensory roots. It carries information to and from the body and it produces reflexes. Question 12 James got hold of some drugs at school and decided to use them. After few minutes of taking drugs, James entered a dreamlike state and started to experience distorted sensory experiences and imaginary visions and realities. What type of drugs induce this kind of mental state? 1. Inhalants 2. Stimulants 3. Hallucinogens 4. Depressants Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 328 Reasoning: Hallucinogens are drugs that bring about distorted sensory experiences. People who use them have intense sensory experiences and can enter a dreamlike state. Question 13 John experienced a sudden collapse. He was awake when his friend, James called him but John could not move. John is suffering from a sleep disorder called . 1. catalepsy 2. insomnia 3. sleep apnoea 4. narcolepsy Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: Tutorial Letter 201/1/2018 Reasoning: • Knowing the characteristics of each type of sleep disorder will help you answer this question. A sleep disorder that is characterised by a sudden collapse, whereby a person is awake but is unable to move is called catalepsy (option 1). Insomnia is characterised by an inability to fall asleep (option 2). Sleep apnoea is marked by a condition of waking up mostly at night, gasping for breath and then going back to sleep (option 3) Narcolepsy is characterised by an overwhelming need to sleep that usually lasts for a few minutes (option 4). Question 14 A youth group leader is concerned about the increasing problem of drug abuse in the community. He wants to organise a workshop for his youth group to provide information about drugs in the hope that this will reduce the incidence of drug abuse. He asks you to give a presentation on drugs and their effects on behaviour. 1. The area of interest is the effect of drugs on behaviour 2. The aim of the presentation is to prevent drug abuse 3. The target audience is young people in the community 4. All of the above Answer: The correct answer is 4 Question 15 A strong smell may seem less intense as time passes by. This is because receptor cells get tired of firing in response to continuous presentation of a stimulus. This process is called . 1. habituation 2. sensory adaptation 3. transduction 4. sensation Answer: The correct answer is 2 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 297 Reasoning: Adaptation is the decrease of generator potential to prevent overstimulation. Adaptation occurs in the receptor cells and is different from habituation, which is a decrease in the frequency of firing in neurons. Question 16 The tutor asks the class to identify the principle behind the following description: “A process of perceptual organisation that refers to our tendency to group elements in a way that creates a balanced figure refers to the principle of .” 1. symmetry 2. contour 3. continuity 4. similarity Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: Tutorial Letter 201/1/2018 Reasoning: The principle of symmetry (option 1) is correct because it refers to the tendency of grouping elements in a way that creates a balanced figure. Question 17 The system that provides people with information about their movements and orientation in space is called . 1. chemical system 2. visual system 3. proprioceptive system 4. somaesthetic system Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: Tutorial Letter 201/1/2018 Reasoning: Successful adaptation to our environment is made possible by a number of different bodily systems. The proprioceptive system provides people with information about their movements and orientation in space. Therefore, option 3 is correct. Option 4 is incorrect because somaesthetic system has to do with sensations in the body, such a touch, pain and temperature. It is the chemical system that helps us to differentiate various smells in our environment. Therefore, option 1 is incorrect. Question 18 When you are talking to someone at a party, you are able to focus on the voice of that person and screen out the background noise. This is an example of which law of perceptual organisation? 1. Closure 2. figure and ground 3. proximity 4. grouping Answer: The correct answer is 2 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 299 Reasoning: When we perceive visual information, we often organise it into a meaningful figure (relevant information) against a less meaningful ground (irrelevant or less relevant information) without being aware of doing so. Question 19 Which one of the following statements refers to the orienting reaction? 1. The orienting reaction follows a sudden change in environmental stimulation 2. The orienting reaction occurs when a stimulus is recognized and given meaning 3. Habituation refers to the re-appearance of the orienting reaction 4. Transduction enables the rapid processing orienting reaction Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 297 Reasoning: The OR is a state of arousal that follows any sudden change in environmental stimulation. Question 20 Which of the following statements about attention is true? 1. Attention is an automatic process that takes place below the awareness level 2. People cannot pay attention to more than one thing at a time 3. There are external and internal determinants of attention 4. Parallel processing is easier when two or more tasks require an individual to pay close attention Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 304 Reasoning: When you pay attention, you consciously decide what should be dealt with. Paying attention is a form of conscious control over what is being perceived. Therefore option 1 is incorrect. People have a limited capacity for attending to more than one thing at a time, therefore option 2 is incorrect. Parallel processing (simultaneous processing of two different sets of information) is easier when the tasks to be dealt with are similar, when you’ve had considerable training for them or when both tasks do not require much attention. Therefore option 4 is incorrect. Question 21 Which of the following statements is (are) example(s) of inductive reasoning? 1. On the basis of high humidity, James states that it could rain later tonight 2. After making some observations at the crime scene, Detective Sherlock Holmes formed a theory about who might have committed the crime 3. If Emily studies very hard, she will pass her psychology exam 4. 1 and 2 Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 6 Reasoning: Inductive reasoning uses available evidence to generate a conclusion about the likelihood of something. Question 22 While reading through some material, James comes across the following syllogism: “All angels are immortal. Gabriel is an angel. Therefore, Gabriel is immortal.” The above statement is an example of reasoning. 1. inductive 2. critical 3. deductive 4. analogical Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 6 Reasoning: Deductive reasoning refers to the process of drawing a conclusion that follows logically from two or more statements or premises. Question 23 When John came back from a party in the middle of the night, he found that the electricity was off in the house and it was raining heavily. So, he struggled to open the door with the key since it was dark in the doorway. Frustrated, John decided to try one by one, only the keys that could possibly open the door and eventually managed to open it. In this case, John used to open the door. 1. heuristic strategy 2. trial and error strategy 3. insight 4. inductive reasoning Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: Tutorial Letter 201/1/2018 Reasoning: People use a variety of methods to solve a particular problem. The trial-and-error strategy involves trying out all the keys to open the door until the correct one is found. Inductive reasoning does not apply here since it deals with generating a conclusion about the probability of something happening. Therefore, option 4 is incorrect. Option 3 is incorrect because insight relates to the comparison of new solutions with old ones to solve a particular problem. Option 1 refers to the heuristic strategy; this option is incorrect because in this case the heuristic strategy would apply if John selected only the keys that are more likely to open the door. Question 24 Your tutor asks your group to explain how informal reasoning differs from formal reasoning. One student answers: “formal reasoning is logical whereas informal reasoning is illogical.” This answer is . 1. correct, because formal reasoning is based on premises and conclusions 2. correct, because formal reasoning is based on inductive and deductive reasoning 3. partially correct, because the difference lies in the topic under discussion 4. incorrect, the difference is that premises and conclusions are explicitly stated in formal reasoning but usually not so in informal reasoning Answer: The correct answer is 4 Refer: Tutorial Letter 201/1/2018 Reasoning: The statement that “formal reasoning is logical whereas informal reasoning is illogical” is incorrect. As a result, option 1 is incorrect because informal reasoning because informal reasoning is also logical. Option 2 is incorrect because both formal and informal reasoning are based on the premises and the conclusions. Option 3 is also incorrect because both formal and informal reasoning may be inductive and/or deductive in nature. Option 4 is the correct option because premises and conclusions are explicitly stated in formal reasoning, which is not the case with informal reasoning. Question 25 Difficulties often arise when a person assesses a problem from one point of view only and does not look at alternatives. This is an example of . 1. restricted thinking 2. an emotional barrier to problem solving 3. a perceptual barrier to problem solving 4. 1 and 3 Answer: The correct answer is 4 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pp. 3-4 Reasoning: Emotional barrier refers to the fact that sometimes we are unable to solve problems because of our emotions getting in the way of thinking clearly, i.e. the fear of being embarrassed. Therefore option 2 is incorrect. Perceptual barrier refers to the fact that we sometimes see only one aspect of a problem and ignore others. This is an example of restricted thinking – therefore option 4 is the correct answer. Semester 1 - 2015: Assignment 02 (Unique number ) Question 1 As a Psychology student, you are asked to explain to the mother why her daughter is having difficulties at school while her friend who lives in the same community, is not. Your explanation is based on the finding that children who are least likely to obtain similar scores on an intelligence test are children who have . 1. the same genetic composition and are raised in similar environments 2. different genetic compositions and are raised in the same environment 3. the same genetic composition and are raised in different environments 4. different genetic compositions and are raised in different environments Answer: The correct answer is 4 Refer: Tutorial Letter 202/1/2018 Reasoning: The “nature versus nurture” debate highlights that people who are raised in a similar environment tend to obtain similar scores in intelligence tests. This is because they are exposed to the same stimuli. However, people who are raised in different environments tend to obtain different scores because they are exposed to different forms of stimuli. Heredity is also believed to make a major contribution to intelligence. People who are closely related in terms of genetics were also shown to obtain similar scores, for example identical and fraternal twins. They have the same genes, look alike and are the same gender. Similar to other siblings, fraternal twins share 50% of their genes and can be of different gender. As a result, test scores of identical twins were shown to be more similar as compared to those of fraternal twins. Option 4 is therefore the correct answer. Question 2 Mrs Roberts is worried because her creative son, James, has been performing poorly at school. The school principal suggests that James should take an intelligence test to determine his IQ level. Which of the following is a possible explanation for the finding that highly creative people often do not perform well on traditional tests of intelligence? 1. Performance on intelligence tests relies on convergent thinking 2. Creativity and intelligence are unrelated abilities 3. Creative people are convergent thinkers 4. Creative people do not have above average intelligence Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 150 Reasoning: Divergent thinking refers to the ability to produce unusual and unconventional thoughts or solutions to problems. Creative people are divergent thinkers. Therefore option 3 is incorrect. Convergent thinking describes the thought process that produces conventional or correct answers to problems. Performance on intelligence tests relies on convergent thinking. Therefore option 1 is correct. Creative thinking is related to intelligent thinking (although not being the same). Therefore option 2 is false. Most highly creative people have above average intellectual ability (Ochse, 1990) – option 4 is therefore false. Question 3 Machela is 13 years old. The intelligence test results show that Machela can perform all the tasks designed for children of 14 years old, half of the tasks for children of 15 years old. Therefore, Machela’s mental age is . 1. 13 years 2. 13 years, 6 months 3. 14 years 4. 14 years, 6 months Answer: The correct answer is 4 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 142 Reasoning: As Machela can perform all the tasks for a child of 14, we bank the number 14. As she can do half the tasks of a 15-year old, we add half of the year (between 14 and 15), which is 6 months. Therefore, Machela’s mental age is 14 years and 6 months. Question 4 Which of the following statements about emotional intelligence is not true? People with high emotional intelligence are able to . 1. manage their emotions well 2. recognise emotions in others 3. control impulses and delay gratification 4. understand the needs of others without necessarily knowing what motivates their own behaviour Answer: The correct answer is 4 Refer: Tutorial Letter 202/1/2018 Reasoning: The correct answer to this question is option 4. Some of the qualities of emotionally intelligent people include the ability to recognise emotions in others, control impulses and delay gratification, and motivate themselves and keep on trying even when they experience frustrations. Emotional intelligent people also have self- awareness and recognise feelings as they happen. Question 5 Which of the following is not associated with the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion? 1. The perception of physiological arousal is a necessary element after an emotion is experienced 2. People think before they feel 3. The experience of an emotion involves interpreting physiological arousal with reference to cognitive content 4. Primary and secondary appraisals are integral components of the experience of an emotion Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: Tutorial Letter 202/1/2018 Reasoning: The correct answer is option 1. The cognitive appraisal theory of emotion claims that we experience emotions because of the way we think about a situation. This means that we think about stimuli before we experience emotions. Our interpretation of a situation informs the different emotions we experience. For example, a person may experience fear after seeing a snake in the bedroom because a snake is perceived to be poisonous. However, another person may feel relaxed when they see a bird inside their bedroom because birds are perceived to be harmless. Options 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect because they are associated cognitive appraisal theory of emotion. Question 6 Which one of the following criteria is incorrect for identifying primary emotions? 1. They must be evident in all cultures 2. They must contribute to the survival of the species 3. They must be evident in human species only 4. They must be associated with distinct facial expression Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: Tutorial Letter 202/1/2018 Reasoning: Primary emotions are the basic emotions experienced by people of different cultures, age and religion throughout the world. For example, anger. Primary emotions also contribute to the survival of human species and are associated with distinct facial expression. Option 3 is incorrect because primary emotions should also be evident in non-human species. Question 7 A fellow student asks you to explain the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion, and you decide to do so by using a flow chart. Which of the following provides the correct sequence in the experience of emotion? 1. Stimulation  arousal  cognitive appraisal  emotion 2. Stimulation  appraisal  differentiation of emotion  arousal 3. Stimulation  appraisal  differentiation of emotion  aroused behaviour 4. Stimulation  arousal  appraisal  emotion  appraisal  behaviour Answer: The correct answer is 4 Refer: Tutorial Letter 202/1/2018 Reasoning: This question requires you to identify the correct sequence of emotion according to Schacter’s two-factor theory. Option 1 is the correct answer because when you come across a snake (stimulus) you may either experience fear or not as a result of your appraisal of the situation. For example, you may experience fear when the snake is aggressive because you will appraise the situation as threatening. However, you may experience relief when the snake crawls away from you. Therefore, you will either run away or attack the snake when you experience fear. Or you will walk freely after you’ve experienced relief. Question 8 Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct about motivation and emotions? 1. Both motivation and emotions activate behaviour 2. Motives are often accompanied by emotions 3. Emotions typically have motivational properties of their own 4. All of the above Answer: The correct answer is 4 Refer: Tutorial Letter 202/1/2018 Reasoning: Motivation and emotions are related concepts because they activate behaviour (option 1). For example, a student will be motivated to study more because of the joy associated with passing their first-year module. Motives are also accompanied by emotions (option 2), for example, the motive to visit a new country may be accompanied by anxiety and excitement. Emotions also have motivational properties (option 3). For example, a student is motivated to focus on their studies because they are passionate about the programme they are enrolled in. Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer. Question 9 What type of learning is traditionally classified as learning by association? 1. Social learning 2. Cognitive learning 3. Classical and operant conditioning 4. Observational learning Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 170 Reasoning: Operant conditioning is a form of learning by association. In operant conditioning the learning that takes place depends on the consequences of the response that the person makes, i.e. reward or punishment. At times, social learning also rests on operant conditioning principles. Question 10 The tutor asks the group about the difference between negative reinforcement and punishment. Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement? 1. Leyla puts on her sunglasses to avoid the bright sunlight 2. Every time Sarah is cheeky, she is sent to her room 3. Themba did not do well in a test so his mother has reduced his television viewing time 4. Peter heard about a good restaurant but when he went there, he found that the food was not good Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: Tutorial Letter 202/1/2018 Reasoning: In order to answer this question correctly you need to understand learning. Negative reinforcement is the strengthening of a response that is followed by the removal of an unpleasant stimulus. In this scenario, the sun is an unpleasant event which is removed by putting on sunglasses. Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer. Option 2 is incorrect because it is related to punishment. Punishment is a process by which a consequence immediately follows a behaviour which decreases the likelihood of that behaviour. In this case, Sarah is more likely to be respectful to avoid being sent to her room. Question 11 Michael’s parents have decided to punish him for using bad language at home and at school. They decided to stop this behaviour by taking away 50 cents from his pocket money every time he swears. Within a month Michael’s swearing has almost disappeared. What type of learning is illustrated in this scenario? 1. Observational learning 2. Operant social learning 3. Cognitive learning 4. Social learning Answer: The correct answer is 2 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 170 Reasoning: Operant conditioning is a form of learning by association. In operant conditioning the learning that takes place depends on the consequences of the response that the person makes, i.e. reward or punishment. Question 12 Which of the following is not by definition a learned perceptual-motor skill? 1. To pick up a glass of water, then a spoon and then a dish-cloth lying on the floor 2. To dive from a high diving-board 3. To get the soccer ball from the goalkeeper and pass it to the strikers 4. To cut a diamond to show off its beauty Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: Tutorial Letter 202/1/2018 Reasoning: Learned perceptual-motor skills are learned motor movements. They are skills that involve muscle movements that are under perceptual control. Perceptual-motor skills include deliberate mental processes in learning the skill which overtime (through practice) becomes automatic. The execution of the actions involved in diving from a high diving board (option 2), getting a soccer ball from the goalkeeper and passing it to the strikers (option 3), and the cutting a diamond to show off its beauty (option 4) all involve learned perceptual- motor skills that are sharpened by practice. Option 1 is the correct answer because it is not a good example of a perceptual-motor skill. To pick up a glass of water, then a spoon and then a dish- cloth lying on the floor involves several actions that do not combine to form a single integrated perceptual motor skill. Question 13 Cindy ate bad sardines and now she feels nauseous whenever she sees a tin of sardines. Which of the following describe(s) this state of affairs? 1. The sight of a tin of sardines acts as an unconditioned stimulus for becoming nauseous 2. Eating bad sardines was an unconditioned stimulus for becoming nauseous 3. Becoming nauseous at the sight of a tin of sardines is a classically conditioned response 4. 2 and 3 Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: Tutorial Letter 202/1/2018 Reasoning: A conditioned response (option 1) takes place when someone associates a conditioned stimulus (sight of a tin of sardines) with another stimulus (becoming nauseous); therefore, option 1 is incorrect. Option 2 is also incorrect because an unconditioned stimulus naturally triggers a response, for example, Cindy becomes nauseous at the sight of a tin of sardines. In the above scenario, the sight of a tin of sardines is an example of a conditioned stimulus eliciting the response of Cindy becoming nauseous. It occurs naturally and it not learned. Option 3 is therefore the correct answer. Question 14 According to Bandura (1986), which of the following are the essential components to observational learning? a) Attention b) Retention c) Reproduction d) Motivation The correct answer is: 1. A and C 2. A, C, and D 3. A, B, and C 4. All of the above Answer: The correct answer is 4 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 182 Reasoning: There are four essential components to observational learning: • attention • retention • reproduction • motivation Question 15 The method of improving memory by summarizing aloud while you are learning is called . 1. rehearsal 2. recitation 3. whole learning 4. spaced practice Answer: The correct answer is 2 Refer: Tutorial Letter 202/1/2018 Reasoning: The correct answer to this question is option 2 because recitation is a method used to improve memory by summarising aloud while you are learning. This method is also important for retrieving the information you are learning. The other options are incorrect. Whole learning (option 3) refers to the method of learning the overall scheme of what you need to learn instead of concentrating on separate parts. Spaced practice (option 4) refers to the method used to alternate study sessions with brief rest periods to ensure that you are paying attention to what you are learning. Question 16 The tutor asks you the name of the country that won the 2014 Fifa Soccer World Cup in Brazil and you say: “I cannot think of the name now but I will remember it in a minute or so.” This indicates a problem with . 1. recognition 2. retrieval 3. decay of information 4. storage of information Answer: The correct answer is 2 Refer: Tutorial Letter 202/1/2018 Reasoning: The correct answer to this question is option 2 because retrieval failure occurs when we cannot find cues or stimuli that helps us access our memories. You are more likely to remember the country that hosted the FIFA world cup when you imagine the activities you were engaged in during the world cup (recreating the context). The other options are incorrect because recognition (option 1) refers to identifying something from previous encounter. Decay of information (option 3) occurs when we forget information that is too complex and not used over time. Storage of information (option 4) involves holding or maintaining information in the memory store. Question 17 The term refers to the process of being unable to retrieve the information we have stored in memory. 1. memory decay 2. forgetting 3. retrieval 4. interference Answer: The correct answer is 2 Refer: Tutorial Letter 202/1/2018 Reasoning: Information is processed in various ways in the memory. Option 1 is incorrect because decay of information takes place when people forget things over time when the physiological mechanisms responsible for memories fade away. Option 3 is also incorrect because retrieval is a process of getting stored information out of memory. Option 4 is also incorrect because interference takes place when other information interferes with the memory process. Option 1 is the correct answer because forgetting takes place when we are unable to retrieve information from our memory. Question 18 The memory system refers to the store of explicit, factual information and memory system deals with actions, conditioned responses and implicit memories. 1. declarative, non-declarative 2. non-declarative, declarative 3. procedural, declarative 4. long-term, short-term Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: Tutorial Letter 202/1/2018 Reasoning: The declarative memory’s (option 1) function is to store explicit and factual information, data, images and events. For example, your ability to understand the concept of mathematics; another relevant example is when remember what you wore last week and recall the events of a hurricane. Information regarding past experiences is stored in the non-declarative memory. Ideas and concepts that are not drawn from personal experience are processed in the semantic memory; general knowledge for example, is stored in the semantic memory. Examples of semantic memory are, understanding the difference between trees and flowers. Temporarily storing information encoded as images or sound are stored in the short-term memory. For example, you may hold on to a piece of information temporarily in order to complete a task. Long-term memory is responsible for storing explicit and factual information and events over long periods. Anything that you can remember that took place more than a day, week or a year ago is stored in the long-term memory. Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer. Question 19 With regard to memory, the monitors and regulates the information needed for reasoning and problem solving. 1. visuospatial sketchpad 2. phonological loop 3. executive control system 4. long-term memory Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: Tutorial Letter 202/1/2018 Reasoning: The correct answer to this question is option 3 because the executive control system is responsible for controlling and regulating information needed for reasoning and problem solving. Your ability to understand concepts is an example of the functions of the executive control system. Option 1 is incorrect because the visuospatial sketchpad is responsible for manipulating visual images. Option 2 is also incorrect because the phonological loop is responsible for retrieval of verbal information. For example, when someone verbally tells you his or her phone number, this is accessed directly by the phonological loop in the form of a speech. Option 4 is also incorrect because long-term memory is responsible for storing explicit and factual information and events over long periods. Question 20 You are about to call your friend when you hear the announcement of the weather report on TV. After the report you realise that you are holding your cell phone in your hand but, you don’t remember who you wanted to call and why. The reason that you forgot is due to . 1. ineffective selection of information 2. lack of rehearsal 3. poor organisation of information in memory 4. interference Answer: The correct answer is 4 Refer: Tutorial Letter 202/1/2018 Reasoning: The correct answer to this question is option 4 because people forget information when there is competition from other material that interferes with the memory process. In this case, you were about to make a call to your friend and the weather report interfered with your concentration. You therefore were unable to remember who you wanted to call and why after you gave attention to the weather report. The other options are incorrect. People can remember information by selecting key words or important facts to provide cues for the information they need to remember. They are however more likely to forget information when they select it ineffectively (option 1). However, in this scenario you did not select the information you wanted to remember when making a phone call. The more people rehearse information the more likely they are to remember information. However, people are more likely to forget information because of lack of rehearsal (option 2). However, in this scenario you did not rehearse making a phone call. Memory skills are improved by organising information into smaller and more manageable chunks. Poor organisation (option 3) leads to forgetfulness. However, in this scenario you did not organise information poorly. Question 21 A person who is able to cope with stress by means of personal commitment, taking control over the situation, and see challenges rather than problems, can be described as having . 1. stress response specificity 2. hardy personality 3. biological homeostasis 4. type A personality Answer: The correct answer is 2 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 337 Reasoning: Psychological hardiness refers to the tendency to commit ourselves, an aptitude for challenges and the ability to take control over a situation. Question 22 Which statement provides the best definition of the term, character? 1. the heredity aspects of a person’s emotional nature 2. stable qualities that a person shows in most situations 3. the individual characteristics that influence behaviour 4. a person’s values and the ability to behave according to those values Answer: The correct answer is 4 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 205 Reasoning: The word character has a narrower meaning than personality and refers to those aspects of the personality involving the person’s values and his or her ability to behave according to those values. Question 23 Which of the following describes Cattell’s trait theory of personality? 1. The most important traits are motivational traits related to our values 2. Personality is made up of cardinal, central and secondary traits 3. Source traits represent an underlying personality characteristics 4. The core of human nature can be described in terms of five basic personality factors Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 209 Reasoning: Cattell observed that surface traits often appear in clusters or groups. Some traits appeared together so often that they seemed to represent a more basic trait or underlying personality characteristic, called a source trait. Question 24 In terms of Psychoanalytic approach, personality is shaped by . 1. the power struggle between the id, ego and superego 2. attempts to keep a balance between self-image and actions 3. learning in the form of operant and classical conditioning 4. hereditary factors that accounts for individual differences in personality Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 210 Reasoning: The psychoanalytic approach sees personality as a dynamic system directed by three mental structures – the id, the ego and the superego. Question 25 Dimensions such as general activity level, sociability, impulsivity, and emotionality are part of of a person. 1. traits 2. character 3. temperament 4. self-esteem Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 206 Reasoning: Temperament has four main characteristics: • general activity level • emotionality • sociability • impulsivity Semester 2 - 2015: Assignment 01 (Unique number ) Question 1 You made notes during the discussion and when you look at your notes some time later, you wonder whether you wrote down all the information correctly. Which of the following statements about the nature of impulse conduction are correct? The process of impulse conduction . A. comprises a basis for all human behaviour B. can contribute to individual differences in behaviour C. can explain all human behaviour D. allows sensory energy to be conducted to the brain E. communicates information from the external and internal environment F. depends on the presence or absence of neurotransmitters 1. A, B, C, D, E, and F 2. C, E and F 3. A, B, and E 4. C, D, and F Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pp. 65 Reasoning: All human behaviour is based on the complicated interactions among neurons in the nervous system. Therefore, statement A is correct, eliminating options 2 and 4. Impulse conduction depends on the presence or absence of neurotransmitters (that has excitatory or inhibitory effects), therefore statement F is correct. Question 2 The process whereby an impulse moves much faster by jumping from node to node when travelling through the myelin sheath is called . 1. myelination 2. nodes of Ranvier 3. saltatory conduction 4. speed Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 70 Reasoning: Impulses travel faster along axons that are myelinated because the impulse jumps from node to node, instead of moving smoothly along the axon as in the case of un- myelinated axons. In myelinated axons impulse conduction is known as salutatory conduction and in un-myelinated axons, it is known as action potential conduction. Question 3 When the electrical charge is strong enough to exceed the threshold, the resting membrane potential is changed into . 1. absolute refractory period 2. action potential 3. synapse 4. postsynaptic potential Answer: The correct answer is 2 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 67 Reasoning: Action potential is what is triggered when the resting membrane potential is achieved plus the threshold potential has been achieved. Question 4 After discussing synaptic transmission, the tutor asks you to describe the effects of noradrenalin in one sentence. Which one of the following statements is correct? 1. Noradrenalin is released by the sympathetic nerves and too much can lead to mania 2. People who experience seasonal depression have low levels of noradrenalin 3. A lack of noradrenalin can explain the decline in cognitive functioning seen in Alzheimer’s disease 4. Noradrenalin is involved in the experience of pleasure and suppression of pain Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 74 Reasoning: Noradrenalin is released by the brain cells and sympathetic nerves as well as the adrenal glands and has an excitatory effect. A lack of NA is associated with depression and excess with mania. Question 5 With regard to impulse conduction in the neuron, the resting membrane potential occurs when the sodium ions are charged and the potassium ions are charged. The total electrical charge on the inside of the membrane is . 1. positively, positively, negative 2. positively, negatively, negative 3. negatively, positively, negative 4. positively, positively, positive Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: Tutorial Letter 201/1/2018 Reasoning: To answer this question correctly, you need to understand the balance of ions in a cell. Impulse conduction occurs due to the changes in electrical charge across the cell membrane. Before a neuron can fire an impulse, there should be a difference between the positive and negative ions inside and outside the neural membrane. The outside of a cell membrane is positively charged with sodium ions because of a high concentration of these ions. The potassium ions inside the neural membrane are also positively charged but the total electrical charge on the inside of the membrane is negative. This is because the fluid on the inside of the neural membrane contains proteins and nucleic acid molecules that are negatively charged. Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer. Question 6 You are chased away by a large, mean dog on the street. When you are safe some distance away, you stop to catch your breath. The physical symptoms that you now experience are controlled mainly by . 1. sympathetic nervous system 2. central nervous system 3. neurotransmitters 4. parasympathetic nervous system Answer: The correct answer is 4 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 36 Reasoning: After a period of intense emotion, the parasympathetic nervous system allows heart rate to slow, pupil size to return to normal and blood pressure to drop. Question 7 Low serotonin level is associated with just as an excess of dopamine is associated with . 1. muscle spasm, aggression 2. Schizophrenia, suppression of pain 3. mania, skeletal muscle contraction 4. seasonal depression, schizophrenia Answer: The correct answer is 4 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 75 Reasoning: Insufficiency of dopamine in the brain contributes to Parkinson’s disease; Excess dopamine is associated with schizophrenia; Low serotonin levels is associated with seasonal depression. Question 8 What term is used to refer to the process whereby a postsynaptic potential is reinforced by action potentials from the terminals of several axons reaching the same synapse simultaneously? 1. Spatial summation 2. Inhibition 3. Temporal summation 4. Excitation Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 73 Reasoning: Spatial summation occurs when a postsynaptic potential is reinforced by action potentials from the terminals of several axons reaching the same synapse at more or less the same time. The action potential is reinforced because more of the neurotransmitter is released and accumulates in the synaptic cleft, strengthening the postsynaptic potential. Question 9 During the group discussion, one student mentions that neurons can send impulses continuously. You say that this statement is . 1. correct, because neurons are never inactive 2. incorrect, because the resting potential has to be restored before another impulse can fire 3. incorrect, because impulses cannot be conducted during the relative refractory period 4. correct, because the refractory period prevents over-stimulation of the nervous system Answer: The correct answer is 2 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 68 Reasoning: During the absolute refractory period, the axon cannot conduct an impulse and the neuron does not respond to any stimulus. Therefore options 1 and 4 are incorrect. During the relative refractory period (towards the end of the refractory period), a very intense stimulus can trigger an impulse. Therefore option 3 is incorrect. Question 10 The hypothalamus is concerned with . 1. regulation of basic survival needs 2. memory 3. planning 4. relaying sensory information Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: Tutorial Letter 201/1/2018 Reasoning: If you have chosen option 2, you are probably confusing the hypothalamus with the hippocampus, which plays an important role in memory. Option 3 is incorrect because planning is a function of the frontal lobes in the brain. Option 4 is also incorrect because it is the thalamus that is concerned with relaying sensory information. The correct answer for this question is therefore, option 1. Question 11 The tutor asks you to identify the correct statement about the brain. The correct statement is that . 1. both hemispheres have to work together for effective language use 2. the cerebral hemispheres are connected by the cerebral cortex 3. the left hemisphere regulates the logical and holistic organisation of information 4. the blood-brain barrier protects the brain from being bumped or injured. Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: A – Z of Psy, pg. 74 Reasoning: Language is processed mainly by the left hemisphere, but the right hemisphere also plays a role in how language is used. The cerebral cortex is the outer layer of the brain, therefore option 2 is incorrect. Question 12 Which of the following refers to the condition of breathing difficulties during sleep, whereby an individual wakes up gasping for breath, and then goes back to sleep? 1. insomnia 2. catalepsy 3. sleep apnoea 4. narcolepsy Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: Tutorial Letter 201/1/2018 Reasoning: Knowing the characteristics of each type of sleep disorder will help you answer this question. A sleep disorder that is characterised by a sudden collapse, whereby a person is awake but is unable to move is called catalepsy therefore, option 2 is incorrect. Sleep apnoea is marked by a condition of waking up mostly at night, gasping for breath and then going back to sleep. Option 3 is correct. Narcolepsy is characterised by an overwhelming need to sleep that usually lasts for few minutes, therefore option 4 is incorrect. Question 13 During group discussion you are asked to provide information about altered states of consciousness. One student asks you whether sleep apnoea is a characteristic of narcolepsy. Your answer is . 1. no, because narcolepsy is characterised by an overwhelming need to sleep 2. no, because insomnia is the main characteristic of narcolepsy 3. no, because narcolepsy is characterised by an inability to move 4. no, because sleep apnoea is a characteristic of insomnia Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: Tutorial Letter 201/1/2018 Reasoning: Knowing the characteristics of each type of sleep disorder will help you answer this question. Sleep apnoea is marked by a condition of waking up mostly at night, gasping for breath and then going back to sleep. Narcolepsy is characterised by an overwhelming need to sleep that usually lasts for few minutes. Question 14 When you wake up and clearly remember what you were dreaming about, what stage of sleep have you woken up from? 1. phase 2 sleep 2. phase 3 sleep 3. phase 4 sleep 4. D-sleep Answer: The correct answer is 4 Refer: Tutorial Letter 201/1/2018 Reasoning: S-Sleep is characterised by restful sleep occurring in four phases. Phase 3 sleep is a deeper form of sleep that is characterised by delta waves and people being very relaxed. Option 2 is incorrect. Option 3 is incorrect because Phase 4 sleep is a very deep sleep that is characterised by people being confused, having slurred speech and poor motor co-ordination if they are woken up. Option 4 refers to D-Sleep which is characterised by dreaming, as result when people are woken up they can remember what they have dreamt about. Therefore, based on the description option 4 is the correct answer. Question 15 A strong smell may seem less intense as time passes by. This is because receptor cells get tired of firing in response to continuous presentation of a stimulus. This process is called . 1. sensory adaptation 2. habituation 3. transduction 4. sensation Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 297 Reasoning: Adaptation is the decrease of generator potential to prevent overstimulation. Adaptation occurs in the receptor cells and is different from habituation, which is a decrease in the frequency of firing in neurons. Question 16 Which of the following statement(s) refer(s) to the orienting reaction? 1. The orienting reaction occurs when a stimulus is recognised or given meaning 2. The orienting reaction follows a sudden change in environmental stimulation 3. Habituation refers to the re-appearance of the orienting reaction 4. All of the above Answer: The correct answer is 2 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 297 Reasoning: The OR is a state of arousal that follows any sudden change in environmental stimulation. Question 17 The theory that explains colour vision on the basis of red, green and blue retinal systems is called . . . 1. Hering theory 2. Retinex theory 3. Opponent-process theory 4. Trichromatic theory Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 310 Reasoning: The opponent-process theory explains colour blindness, a phenomenon that the trichromatic theory or the retinex theory alone cannot explain. People with normal colour vision have three kinds of iodopsin (red, blue and green), but most colour- blind people have two kinds of iodopsin. Question 18 A white shirt may look slightly grey when viewed in a shade, but you still perceive it as white. Which type of perceptual constancy refers to this phenomenon? 1. Constant brightness 2. Constant form 3. Constant size 4. None of the above Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: Tutorial Letter 201/1/2018 Reasoning: Your knowledge of the characteristics of how objects appear in any situation refers to perceptual constancy. In this example, we are not concerned with the size and form of the shirt, therefore options 2 and 3 are incorrect. Option 1 is the correct answer because even though the shirt may look slightly grey when viewed in the shade, it is still perceived as white, this is a function of constant brightness. Question 19 We have a tendency to group elements that are close together as though they represent a meaningful figure. Which aspect of perceptual organisation is operative here? 1. Principle of closure 2. Perceptual constancy 3. Principle of symmetry 4. Principle of proximity Answer: The correct answer is 4 Refer: Tutorial Letter 201/1/2018 Reasoning: This question requires your knowledge about perceptual grouping. The tendency to group elements that are close together as if they represent a particular figure is a principle of proximity. Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer. The principle of closure (option 1) is incorrect because it refers to the tendency to complete something so that it has a meaning. Perceptual constancy (option 2) is incorrect because it refers to the process of perceiving objects as unchanging despite the different conditions in which we perceive them. The principle of symmetry (option 3) is incorrect because it refers to the tendency of grouping elements in a way that creates a balanced figure. Question 20 You are walking past the garden when you notice a nice smell from the flowers. Your friend tells you that your olfactory nerve has been triggered. Which sensory system does the olfactory nerve form part of? 1. Proprioceptive system 2. Somaesthetic system 3. Auditory system 4. Chemical system Answer: The correct answer is 4 Refer: Tutorial Letter 201/1/2018 Reasoning: Successful adaptation to our environment is made possible by a number of different bodily systems. The proprioceptive system provides people with information about their movements and orientation in space. Therefore, option 1 is incorrect. The auditory system is responsible for auditory information such as sound, therefore option 3 is the incorrect option. Option 2 is also incorrect because somaesthetic system has to do with sensations in the body, such a touch, pain and temperature. It is the chemical system that helps us to differentiate various smells in our environment. Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer. Question 21 Michael drove over a red robot and was stopped by the traffic cop. He does not want to pay the fine and pleads with the traffic cop: “If I pay the fine, my family will have nothing to eat for the whole week. I still have to pay my electricity account. Please, help me out.” What kind of fallacious reasoning is Michael using here? 1. Relying on group characteristics to gain support for his conclusion 2. False analogy 3. Playing on sympathy to support the conclusion 4. Trying to discredit the issue by discrediting the person who supports it Answer: The correct answer is 3 Question 22 What type of reasoning refers to the process of drawing a conclusion that follows logically from two or more statements or premises? 1. Logical reasoning 2. Inductive reasoning 3. Critical reasoning 4. Deductive reasoning Answer: The correct answer is 4 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 5 Reasoning: Deductive reasoning refers to the process of drawing a conclusion that follows logically from two or more statements or premises. Question 23 Conceptual errors can lead to errors of thinking. Which of the following is not an example of such conceptual errors? 1. All-or-nothing thought 2. Stereotypes 3. Prototypes 4. Oversimplification of complex concepts Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: Tutorial Letter 201/1/2018 Reasoning: Errors of thinking generally result from inaccurate use of concepts. One- dimensional or all-or-nothing thought (option1), stereotypes (option 2) and oversimplifying complex concepts (option 4) are examples of errors of thinking and therefore these options do not provide the correct answer to the question. A prototype (option 3) is a model of a concept and forming a prototype is an example of conceptual thinking, but is not a form of thinking error. Therefore, option 3 is the correct answer. Question 24 Peter wants to see the movie at 20:00. He reasons that he must be in the queue around 19:30 to get a seat. He also works out that it would take him about 15 minutes to find the parking slot a nd another five minutes to walk from the parking to the movie house and 30 minutes to drive from his home to the parking. So, he works out that he must leave home around 18:30 to get to the ticket office on time. Which of the following heuristic methods did Peter apply to solve his problem of time calculation? 1. analogic analysis 2. analysing the available means to attain the desired goal 3. analysing the steps necessary to attain the desired goal 4. checklist analysis Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 7 Reasoning: Analogical reasoning means that you infer patterns of relations between things. I.e. to describe similarities and differences between two things or events. Therefore option 1 is incorrect. Question 25 Sarah’s baby cries a lot during the night and Sarah does not sleep well and cannot cope with her daily work. What is the first thing Sarah should do to solve the problem? 1. Adopt a trial and error strategy until she finds a solution 2. Try the likeliest solution first 3. Recognise and define the problem 4. Decide on the advantages of different solutions Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 1 Reasoning: The first step in the process of problem solving is recognising and defining the problem. Semester 2 - 2015: Assignment 2 (Unique number ) Question 1 The tutor discusses the concept of intelligence. After the discussion, the tutor asks the students to show their understanding by answering the following questions. Which of the following statement(s) about intelligence is (are) not correct? A. Intelligence refers to the ability to adapt successfully to the demands of life B. Intelligence can be measured objectively C. What is regarded as intelligent behaviour various from one context to another D. The concept of intelligence includes speed of task performance 1. A 2. A and D 3. B 4. C and D Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: PYC1501 Studyguide. Pg. 96 Reasoning: Each one of us has his or her own ideas of what it means to be intelligent. Perhaps the ultimate test of intelligent behaviour is being able to cope successfully in your particular situation. The different views of what constitutes intelligent behaviour make it very difficult to measure intelligence. Performance on an intelligence test provides an intelligence quotient (IQ) but the question still remains whether an IQ is equal to one’s intelligence. Even psychologists do not agree on how to define intelligence, how to explain exactly how it functions, or how it should be measured. Therefore, intelligence cannot be measured objectively, and statement B is incorrect. Question 2 Another student states that when intellectual development is normal, an IQ increases gradually over the lifespan. This statement is . 1. correct, because mental age increases with chronological age 2. incorrect, because IQ increases up to the age of sixteen and then decreases gradually 3. incorrect, because mental age and intellectual ability increase annually more or less up to the age of sixteen 4. incorrect, because mental age increases more rapidly than chronological age Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 143 Reasoning: MA generally increases until the age of 16 and then it remains on the same level. Question 3 The tutor asks you to identify the main difference between the theories of intelligence proposed by Spearman and Thurston. Which of the following is correct? 1. Initially Thurston could not identify the existence of a general ability 2. Thurston identified more specific factors than Spearman 3. Thurston rejected the notion that intelligence is based on a general factor 4. Thurston singled out interpersonal skills as part of intelligence Answer: The correct answer is 1 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 145 Reasoning: Option 4 is incorrect, as it was Gardner that stated interpersonal skills were a part of intelligence. Thurston acknowledged that the primary mental abilities were related to a general factor, therefore option 3is incorrect. Initially Thurston believed that the specific factors were independent of each other, but later acknowledged that mental abilities were related to a general factor. Therefore option 1 is correct. Question 4 Mrs Robertson is worried about her son’s progress at school. David is 9 years old. The results of intelligence test indicate that David can pass all the test items passed by 8 year-old children, half of the items passed by 9 year-old children and a quarter of the items passed by 10 year-old children. The test results indicate . A. David’s chronological age B. that David’s mental age is 8 years C. that David’s mental age is 8,9 years D. an IQ of 98.8 E. that David is not intelligent 1. A, B, D, and E 2. A and C 3. C and D 4. A, C, D, and E Answer: The correct answer is 3 Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 142 Reasoning: As David can perform all the tasks for a child of 8, we bank the number 8. As he can do half the tasks of a 9-year old, we add half of the year (between 8 and 9), which is 6 months. As he can do a quarter the tasks of a 10-year old, we add a quarter of the year (between 9 and 10), which is 3 months. Therefore, David’s mental age is 8 years and 9 months. IQ = MA/CA x 100 (Mental age divide by chronological age) x 100 = 9,8/9 x 100 = 98,8 David’s chronological age is not the result of the test, therefore option A is eliminated, el