Understanding Pathophysiology 7Th Edition Test Bank

1. A student is observing a cell under the microscope. It is observed to have supercoiled DNA with histones. Which of the following would also be observed by the student? a. A single circular chromosome b. A nucleus c. Free-floating nuclear material d. No organelles 2. A nurse is instructing the staff about cellular functions. Which cellular function is the nurse describing when an isolated cell absorbs oxygen and uses it to transform nutrients to energy? a. Metabolic absorption b. Communication c. Secretion d. Respiration 3. A eukaryotic cell is undergoing DNA replication. In which region of the cell would most of the genetic information be contained? a. Mitochondria b. Ribosome c. Nucleolus d. Nucleus 4. The fluid mosaic model for biologic membranes describes membrane behavior. According to this model, which of the following float singly or as aggregates in the fluid lipid bilayer? a. Peripheral membrane proteins b. Integral membrane proteins c. Glycoproteins d. Cell adhesion molecules 5. Which of the following can bind to plasma membrane receptors? a. Oxygen b. Ribosomes c. Amphipathic lipids d. Ligands 6. A nurse is reviewing a report from a patient with metastatic cancer. What finding would support the diagnosis of metastatic cancer? Alterations in extracellular matrix that include: a. Decreased fibronectin b. Increased collagen c. Decreased elastin d. Increased glycoproteins 7. Which form of cell communication is used to relate to other cells in direct physical contact? a. Cell junction b. Gap junction c. Desmosomes d. Tight junctions 8. Pancreatic beta cells secrete insulin, which inhibits secretion of glucagon from neighboring alpha cells. This action is an example of which of the following signaling types? a. Paracrine b. Autocrine c. Neurohormonal d. Hormonal 9. In cellular metabolism, each enzyme has a high affinity for a: a. Solute b. Substrate c. Receptor d. Ribosome 10. An athlete runs a marathon, after which his muscles feel fatigued and unable to contract. The athlete asks the nurse why this happened. How should the nurse respond? A deficiency in can cause impaired muscle contraction. a. GTP b. AMP c. ATP d. GMP 11. Which phase of catabolism produces the most ATP? a. Digestion b. Glycolysis c. Oxidation d. Citric acid cycle 12. A nurse is teaching the staff about the three phases of cellular catabolism. Which of the following should the nurse include? a. Digestion, glycolysis and oxidation, and the citric acid cycle b. Diffusion, osmosis, and mediated transport c. S phase, G phase, and M phase d. Metabolic absorption, respiration, and excretion 13. A runner has depleted all the oxygen available for muscle energy. Which of the following will facilitate his continued muscle performance? a. Electron-transport chain b. Aerobic glycolysis c. Anaerobic glycolysis d. Oxidative phosphorylation ANS: C 14. The faculty member asked the student to identify the appropriate term for the movement of small, electrically uncharged molecules through a semipermeable barrier. Which answer indicates the nursing student understood the teaching? a. Osmosis b. Diffusion c. Hydrostatic pressure d. Active transport 15. A nurse is teaching a patient about fluid and electrolytes. Which of the following indicates the teaching was successful regarding electrolytes? Electrolytes are: a. Small lipid-soluble molecules b. Large protein molecules c. Micronutrients used to produce ATP d. Electrically charged molecules 16. A nurse is reading a chart and sees the term oncotic pressure. The nurse recalls that oncotic pressure (colloid osmotic pressure) is determined by: a. Concentration of sodium b. Plasma proteins c. Hydrostatic pressure d. Availability of membrane transporter proteins 17. A patient has a body fluid of 300 mOsm/kg. This lab result is measuring: a. Osmolality b. Osmolarity c. Osmotic pressure d. Oncotic pressure 18. In teaching a patient with cirrhosis, which information should the nurse include regarding cholesterol? a. Cholesterol decreases the membrane fluidity of the erythrocyte, which reduces its ability to carry oxygen. b. Cholesterol decreases the membrane fluidity of erythrocytes, which reduces its ability to carry hemoglobin. c. Cholesterol increases the membrane fluidity of erythrocytes, which allows binding of excess glucose. d. Cholesterol increases the membrane fluidity of erythrocytes, which prolongs its life span beyond 120 days. 19. A nurse is discussing the movement of fluid across the arterial end of capillary membranes into the interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary. Which process of fluid movement is the nurse describing? a. Hydrostatic pressure b. Osmosis c. Diffusion d. Active transport 20. A patient who has diarrhea receives a hypertonic saline solution intravenously to replace the sodium and chloride lost in the stool. What effect will this fluid replacement have on cells? a. Cells will become hydrated. b. Cells will swell or burst. c. Cells will shrink. d. Cells will divide. 21. A nurse is teaching a patient with diabetes how glucose is transported from the blood to the cell. What type of transport system should the nurse discuss with the patient? a. Active-mediated transport (active transport) b. Active diffusion c. Passive osmosis d. Passive-mediated transport (facilitated diffusion) 22. How are potassium and sodium transported across plasma membranes? a. By passive electrolyte channels b. By coupled channels c. By adenosine triphosphate enzyme (ATPase) d. By diffusion 23. Why is potassium able to diffuse easily in and out of cells? a. Because potassium has a greater concentration in the intracellular fluid (ICF) b. Because sodium has a greater concentration in the extracellular fluid (ECF) c. Because the resting plasma membrane is more permeable to potassium d. Because there is an excess of anions inside the cell 24. The ion transporter that moves Na+ and Ca2+ simultaneously in the same direction is an example of which of the following types of transport? a. Biport b. Uniport c. Antiport d. Symport 25. During which process can lysosomal enzymes be released to degrade engulfed particles? a. Endocytosis b. Pinocytosis c. Phagocytosis d. Exocytosis 26. A nurse is teaching the staff about cholesterol. Which information should be taught? The cellular uptake of cholesterol depends on: a. Active-mediated transport b. The antiport system c. Receptor-mediated endocytosis d. Passive transport 27. Some cancer drugs work during the cell cycle phase where nuclear and cytoplasmic division occurs. What is this cell cycle phase called? a. G1 b. S c. M d. G2 28. What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential that initiates an action potential? a. Potassium gates open, and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive. b. Sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive. c. Sodium gates close, allowing potassium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative. d. Potassium gates close, allowing sodium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative. 29. A cell is isolated, and electrophysiology studies reveal that the resting membrane potential is 70 millivolts. The predominant intracellular ion is Na+, and the predominant extracellular ion is K+. With voltage change, which of the following would result in an action potential? a. K+ rushing into the cell b. Na+ rushing into the cell c. Na+ rushing out of the cell d. K+ rushing out of the cell 30. A nurse is teaching the staff about platelet-derived growth factor. Which information should the nurse include? Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) stimulates the production of: a. Platelets b. Epidermal cells c. Connective tissue cells d. Fibroblast cells 31. The phase of the cell cycle during which the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are pulled apart is referred to as: a. Anaphase b. Telophase c. Prophase d. Metaphase 32. What is the role of cytokines in cell reproduction? a. Provide growth factor for tissue growth and development b. Block progress of cell reproduction through the cell cycle c. Restrain cell growth and development d. Provide nutrients for cell growth and development 33. A biopsy of the lung bronchi revealed ciliated epithelial cells that are capable of secretion and absorption. These cells are called columnar epithelium. a. Simple b. Ciliated simple c. Stratified d. Pseudostratified ciliated 34. The nurse would be correct in identifying the predominant extracellular cation as: a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Chloride d. Glucose 35. The student is reviewing functions of the cell. The student would be correct in identifying the primary function of the nerve cell as: a. Sensory interpretation b. Conductivity c. Maintenance of homeostasis d. Communication ANS: B 1. A nurse recalls the basic components of DNA are: a. Pentose sugars and four phosphate bases b. A phosphate molecule, deoxyribose, and four nitrogenous bases c. Adenine, guanine, and purine d. Codons, oxygen, and cytosine 2. Which of the following mutations have the most significant effect on protein synthesis? a. Base pair substitutions b. Silent mutations c. Intron mutations d. Frameshift mutations 3. The base components of DNA are: a. A, G, C, and U b. P, G, C, and T c. A, G, C, and T d. X, XX, XY, and YY 4. A DNA strand has a region with the sequence ATCGGAT. Which of the following would be a complementary strand? a. CGATACGT b. TAGCCTAG c. TUGCCTUG d. UAGCCUAG 5. A biologist is explaining how RNA directs the synthesis of protein. Which process is the biologist describing? a. Termination b. Transcription c. Translocation d. Translation 6. When homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, which of the following occurs? a. Neurofibromatosis b. Nondisjunction c. Polyploidy d. Conjoined twins 7. A cell that does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes is called a cell. a. diploid b. euploid c. polyploid d. haploid 8. A 20-year-old pregnant female gives birth to a stillborn child. Autopsy reveals that the fetus has 92 chromosomes. What term may be on the autopsy report to describe this condition? a. Biploidy b. Triploidy c. Tetraploidy d. Aneuploidy 9. The condition in which an extra portion of a chromosome is present in each cell is called: a. Reciprocal translocation b. Partial trisomy c. Inversion d. Down syndrome 10. After a geneticist talks to the patient about being a chromosomal mosaic, the patient asks the nurse what that means. How should the nurse respond? You may genetic disease(s). a. Only be a carrier of the b. Have a mild form of the c. Have two d. Be sterile as a result of the 11. The nurse is teaching staff about the most common cause of Down syndrome. What is the nurse describing? a. Paternal nondisjunction b. Maternal translocations c. Maternal nondisjunction d. Paternal translocations 12. A patient wants to know the risk factors for Down syndrome. What is the nurses best response? a. Fetal exposure to mutagens in the uterus b. Increased paternal age c. Family history of Down syndrome d. Pregnancy in women over age 35 13. A 13-year-old girl has a karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome present. What medical diagnosis will the nurse observe on the chart? a. Down syndrome b. Cri du chat syndrome c. Turner syndrome d. Fragile X syndrome ANS: C 14. An XXY person asks the nurse what this genetic disorder is called. What is the nurses best response? This disorder is syndrome. a. Turner b. Klinefelter c. Down d. Fragile X 15. A patient has severe mental retardation caused by a deletion of part of chromosome 5. What genetic disorder will the nurse see documented in the chart? a. Prader-Willi syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Cri du chat syndrome d. Trisomy X 16. A couple has three offspring: one child with an autosomal dominant disease trait and two who are normal. The father is affected by the autosomal dominant disease, but the mother does not have the disease gene. What is the recurrence risk of this autosomal dominant disease for their next child? a. 50% b. 33% c. 25% d. Impossible to determine 17. An aide asks the nurse why people who have neurofibromatosis will show varying degrees of the disease. Which genetic principle should the nurse explain to the aide? a. Penetrance b. Expressivity c. Dominance d. Recessiveness 18. When a patient asks what causes cystic fibrosis, how should the nurse respond? Cystic fibrosis is caused by an gene. a. X-linked dominant b. X-linked recessive c. Autosomal dominant d. Autosomal recessive 19. A 15-year-old female is diagnosed with Prader-Willi syndrome. This condition is an example of: a. Gene imprinting b. An autosomal recessive trait c. An autosomal dominant trait d. A sex-linked trait 20. A patient, age 9, is admitted to a pediatric unit with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. When planning care the nurse recalls the patient inherited this condition through a trait. a. Sex-linked dominant b. Sex-influenced c. Sex-limited d. Sex-linked recessive 21. A child is born with blue eyes (bb). The childs mother has blue eyes and the father has brown eyes. Which of the following represents the father? a. Bb b. Bb c. BB d. Bbb 22. A child is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. History reveals that the childs parents are siblings. Cystic fibrosis was most likely the result of: a. X inactivation b. Genomic imprinting c. Consanguinity d. Obligate carriers 23. A 12-year-old male is diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome. His karyotype would reveal which of the following? a. XY b. XX c. XYY d. XXY 24. To express a polygenic trait: a. Genes must interact with the environment. b. Several genes must act together. c. Multiple mutations must occur in the same family. d. Penetrance must occur. 25. What is the diagnosis of a 13-year-old female who has a karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome present? Her features include a short stature, widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair. a. Down syndrome b. Cri du chat syndrome c. Turner syndrome d. Klinefelter syndrome 26. A normal male and a female carrier for red-green color blindness mate. Given that red-green color blindness is an X-linked recessive trait, what is the likelihood of their children being affected? a. 25% b. 50% c. Females most affected; no males affected d. Males most affected; no females affected 27. The gradual increase in height among the human population over the past 100 years is an example of: a. A polygenic trait b. A multifactorial trait c. Crossing over d. Recombination 28. When discussing DNA replication, which enzyme is most important? a. RNA polymerase b. Transfer RNA c. Messenger RNA d. DNA polymerase 29. The regions of the heterogeneous nuclear RNA that must be spliced out to form functional RNA are called: a. Promoter sites b. Introns c. Exons d. Anticodon 30. A 5-year-old male presents with mental retardation and is diagnosed with fragile X syndrome. When the parents ask what caused this, how should the geneticist respond? This was most probably caused from: a. Translocation b. Inversion c. Nondisjunction d. Duplication at fragile sites 31. A 50-year-old male was recently diagnosed with Huntington disease. Transmission of this disease is associated with: a. Penetrance b. Recurrence risk c. Expressivity d. Delayed age of onset ANS: D 32. Mutations that do not change the amino acid sequence and thus have no consequence are termed mutations. a. Frameshift b. Spontaneous c. Silent d. Missense 33. A nurse is reviewing the pedigree chart. When checking for a proband, what is the nurse looking for? a. The person who is first diagnosed with a genetic disease b. The individual who has a disease gene but is phenotypically normal c. The phenotype of genetic material d. The codominance 34. Which of the following disorders is manifested primarily in males? a. Cystic fibrosis b. Neurofibromatosis c. Muscular dystrophy d. Klinefelter syndrome 1. Genetic disorders that involve a single gene trait are characterized by: A) multifactorial gene mutations. B) chromosome rearrangements. C) Mendelian patterns of transmission. D) abnormal numbers of chromosomes. 2. In addition to having a 50% chance of inheriting an autosomal dominant disorder from an affected parent, such a disorder is characterized by: A) aneuploidy of genes in all cells. B) deficiencies in enzyme synthesis. C) affected X transmission to daughters. D) varied gene penetration and expression. 3. Autosomal recessive disorders are characterized by: A) age of onset later in life. B) abnormal protein structure. C) inborn errors of metabolism. D) one in two risk of a carrier child. 4. When a male child inherits an X-linked disorder from his heterozygous carrier mother, A) his sons will be carriers. B) his father has the disorder. C) some of his sisters will be carriers. D) his daughters will have the disorder. 5. Multifactorial inheritance disorders, such as cleft palate, are often caused by during fetal development. A) multiple gene mutations B) dominant gene expression C) X-linked crossover problem D) polyploidy of chromosomes 6. The newborn has the distinctive physical features of trisomy 21, Down syndrome, which includes: A) upward slanting of eyes. B) large, protruding ears. C) thin lips and small tongue. D) long fingers with extra creases. 7. Aneuploidy of the X chromosome can result in a monosomy or polysomy disorder. The manifestations of monosomy X, Turner syndrome, differ from polysomy X disorders in numerous ways that include: A) short-stature female individual.. B) mental retardation. C) enlarged breasts. D) early onset puberty. 8. A teratogenic environmental agent can cause birth defects when: A) inherited as a recessive trait. B) intense exposure occurs at birth. C) disjunction occurs during meiosis. D) retained during early pregnancy. 9. Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is unlike other teratogens in that the harmful effects on the fetus: A) directly result in liver damage. B) extend throughout the pregnancy. C) is most noticeable in adulthood. D) cause death in early childhood. 10. Prenatal diagnosis methods include the use of ultrasonography for identifying abnormalities. A) cytogenic B) skeletal C) chromosomal D) a-fetoprotein 11. A woman who is a carrier for which of the following diseases possesses the greatest likelihood of passing the disease to her future children when heterozygous pairing exists? A) Phenylketonuria (PKU) B) Tay-Sachs disease C) Neurofibromatosis D) Cystic fibrosis 12. Which of the following statements is true of autosomal recessive disorders? A) Onset is typically late in childhood or early in adulthood. B) Symptomatology is less uniform than with autosomal dominant disorders. C) Mitochondrial DNA is normally the site of genetic alteration. D) Effects are typically the result of alterations in enzyme function. 13. The parents of a newborn infant are relieved that their baby was born healthy, with the exception of a cleft lip that will be surgically corrected in 10 or 12 weeks. Which of the nurses following statements to the parents best conveys the probable cause of the infants cleft lip? A) Though you are both healthy, you likely both carry the gene for a cleft lip. B) Provided one of you had the gene for a cleft lip, your baby likely faced a 50/50 chance of having one. C) Your childs cleft lip likely results from the interplay between environment and genes. D) A cleft lip can sometimes result from taking prescription drugs, even when theyre taken as ordered. 14. Which of the following practitioners is most likely to be of assistance in the early care of an infant with a cleft lip? A) Lactation consultant B) Respiratory therapist C) Occupational therapist D) Social worker 15. A 41-year-old woman has made the recent decision to start a family, and is eager to undergo testing to mitigate the possibility of having a child with Down syndrome. Which of the following tests is most likely to provide the data the woman seeks? A) Genetic testing of the woman B) Genetic testing of the woman and the father C) Prenatal blood tests D) Ultrasonography 16. Genetic testing has revealed that a male infant has been born with an extra X chromosome. What are the most likely implications of this finding? A) The child is unlikely to survive infancy B) The child is likely to have no manifestations of this chromosomal abnormality C) The child will have significant neurological and cognitive defects D) The child will be unable to reproduce 17. Which of the following variables determine the extent of teratogenic drug effects? Select all that apply. A) Maternal health history B) Molecular weight of the drug C) Stage of pregnancy when the drug was taken D) Duration of drug exposure E) Fetal blood type 18. A woman who has just learned that she is pregnant for the first time has sought advice from her healthcare provider about the safe use of alcohol during pregnancy. What advice should the clinician provide to the woman? A) Its likely best to eliminate alcohol from your diet while youre pregnant. B) Moderation in alcohol use is critical while you are pregnant. C) You should limit yourself to a maximum of one drink daily while youre pregnant. D) You should drink no alcohol until you are in your second trimester. 19. Which of the following health problems may be identified by a TORCH screening test? A) Rubella and herpes B) Tenovaginitis and human papillomavirus C) Rhinovirus and Ormond disease D) Chlamydia and rickets 20. Ultrasonography is most likely to detect which of the following fetal abnormalities? A) Neural tube defects B) Skeletal abnormalities C) Chromosomal defects D) Single-gene disorders 1. A report comes back indicating that muscular atrophy has occurred. A nurse recalls that muscular atrophy involves a decrease in muscle cell: a. Number b. Size c. Vacuoles d. Lipofuscin 2. During childhood, the thymus decreases in size, and this is referred to as atrophy. a. Physiologic b. Pathologic c. Disuse d. Neurogenic 3. When planning care for a cardiac patient, the nurse knows that in response to an increased workload, cardiac myocardial cells will: a. Increase in size b. Decrease in length c. Increase in excitability d. Increase in number 4. A 55-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking is examined for respiratory disturbance. Examination of his airway (bronchial) reveals that stratified squamous epithelial cells have replaced the normal columnar ciliated cells. This type of cellular adaptation is called: a. Anaplasia b. Hyperplasia c. Metaplasia d. Dysplasia 5. When planning care for the pregnant patient, the nurse will recall that the mammary glands enlarge as a consequence of: a. Compensatory hyperplasia b. Hormonal hyperplasia c. Hormonal anaplasia d. Compensatory anaplasia 6. A 24-year-old female presents with excessive menstrual bleeding. The physician identified endometrial changes that are due to hormonal imbalances. These cellular changes would be referred to as: a. Dysplasia b. Pathologic dysplasia c. Hyperplasia d. Pathologic hyperplasia 7. A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with hepatocellular cancer secondary to hepatitis C. If the cancerous region of the liver were removed, the remaining cells would undergo: a. Pathologic hyperplasia b. Pathologic metaplasia c. Compensatory hyperplasia d. Compensatory aplasia 8. A 40-year-old female is diagnosed with cervical cancer after a Pap smear. Which of the following cellular changes would the nurse most likely see on the report? a. Metaplasia b. Atrophy c. Hypertrophy d. Dysplasia 9. A 75-year-old male presents with chest pain on exertion. The chest pain is most likely due to hypoxic injury secondary to: a. Malnutrition b. Free radicals c. Ischemia d. Chemical toxicity 10. A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury that causes cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process? a. Adaptation b. Pathologic calcification c. Apoptosis d. Necrosis 11. Sodium and water accumulation in an injured cell are a direct result of: a. Decreased ATP production b. Karyorrhexis c. Ribosome detachment d. Dehydration 12. The early dilation (swelling) of the cells endoplasmic reticulum results in: a. Increased aerobic metabolism b. Failure of DNA c. Reduced protein synthesis d. Decreased Na+-K+ pump function 13. A 52-year-old male suffered a myocardial infarction secondary to atherosclerosis and ischemia. Once oxygen returned to the damaged heart, reperfusion injury occurred as a result of: a. Free radical formation b. Vacuolation c. Increased metabolic state d. Lipid acceptor proteins 14. A family presents to their primary care provider reporting headache, nausea, weakness, and vomiting. Which of the following would be the most likely explanation for these symptoms? a. Lead exposure b. Carbon monoxide poisoning c. Ethanol exposure d. Mercury poisoning 15. A common pathway of irreversible cell injury involves increased intracellular: a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Magnesium d. Calcium 16. A 50-year-old male sustained a closed head injury as a result of a motor vehicle accident. CT scan revealed a collection of blood between the inner surface of the dura mater and the surface of the brain. Which type of injury will the nurse be caring for? a. Subdural hematoma b. Epidural hematoma c. Contusion d. Abrasion 17. A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a jagged sharp-force injury that is longer than it is deep. Which type of wound will the nurse be caring for? a. Stab wound b. Incised wound c. Puncture wound d. Chopping wound 18. A 30-year-old female presents with a gunshot wound to the head. The wound has seared edges and a deep penetration of smoke and gunpowder fragments. This wound would be documented as a(n) wound. a. Exit b. Intermediate range entrance c. Contact range entrance d. Indeterminate range entrance 19. A 15-year-old female presents to the ER following a physical assault. She has internal damage to the neck with deep bruising. X-ray reveals fractures of the hyoid bone and tracheal and cricoid cartilage. Which of the following most likely caused her injuries? a. Chemical asphyxiation b. Choking asphyxiation c. Ligature strangulation d. Manual strangulation 20. A 55-year-old male has swelling of the feet. Which of the following aided in development of swelling? a. Increased ATP b. Chloride movement out of the cell c. Na+ movement into the cell d. Decreased oncotic pressure 21. A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Biopsy of the tumor reveals Russell bodies, and laboratory testing reveals kidney dysfunction. Which substance should the nurse monitor as it is accumulating in the patients body? a. Glycogen b. Protein c. Pigment d. Melanin 22. A newborn male is diagnosed with albinism based on skin, eye, and hair appearance. Which finding will support this diagnosis? a. Increased melanin b. Increased hemoproteins c. Inability to convert tyrosine to DOPA (3,4 dihydroxyphenylalanine) d. Inability to convert bile to bilirubin 23. A 23-year-old male develops a black eye following a fight. When the aide asks the nurse why this occurred, the nurses best response is that the bruising is due to an accumulation of: a. Transferrin b. Bilirubin c. Albumin d. Hemosiderin 24. Liquefactive necrosis occurs in the brain because: a. Debris is not digested by hydrolases b. Of protein denaturation c. It is rich in hydrolytic enzymes and lipids d. Ischemia results in chemical injury 25. A 2-year-old swallowed watch batteries. Following ingestion, kidney function was impaired, and the heart began to fail. Which of the following was the most likely cause? a. Karyorrhexis b. Coagulative necrosis c. Ammonia accumulation d. Caseous necrosis 26. A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following exposure to an infected inmate. On examination, tissues were soft and granular (like clumped cheese). Which of the following is the most likely cause? a. Coagulative necrosis b. Liquefactive necrosis c. Caseous necrosis d. Autonecrosis ANS: C 27. A 50-year-old female became infected with Clostridium bacteria and died a week later. Examination of her red blood cells revealed lysis of membranes. Which of the following was the most likely cause of her death? a. Fat necrosis b. Wet gangrene c. Gangrenous necrosis d. Gas gangrene 28. While reading a textbook, the student reads the term, apoptosis. The student recalls that apoptosis is a condition in which cells program themselves to: a. Atrophy b. Die c. Regenerate d. Age 29. A 50-year-old male intravenous drug user is diagnosed with hepatitis C. Examination of the liver reveals cell death secondary to: a. Fat necrosis b. Physiologic apoptosis c. Pathologic apoptosis d. Pyknosis 30. What principle should the nurse remember when trying to distinguish aging from diseases? a. It is difficult to tell the difference because both processes are believed to result from cell injury. b. It is easy to tell normal processes from abnormal processes. c. Disease, unlike aging, has a genetic component. d. Aging is defined as exceeding life expectancy, but not maximal life span. 31. When a nurse observes muscle stiffening occurring within 6 to 14 hours after death, the nurse should document this finding as present. a. Livor mortis b. Gangrene c. Algor mortis d. Rigor mortis 32. When the nurse is checking the urinalysis, the finding that would alert the nurse to cellular injury is the presence of: a. Slight glucose b. Excessive protein c. Blood d. Urea