TEST BANK Understanding Pathophysiology 6th Edition Huether

1. A student is observing a cell under the microscope. It is observed to have supercoiled DNA with histones. Which of the following would also be observed by the student? a. A single circular chromosome b. A nucleus c. Free-floating nuclear material d. No organelles 2. A nurse is instructing the staff about cellular functions. Which cellular function is the nurse describing when an isolated cell absorbs oxygen and uses it to transform nutrients to energy? a. Metabolic absorption b. Communication c. Secretion d. Respiration 3. A eukaryotic cell is undergoing DNA replication. In which region of the cell would most of the genetic information be contained? a. Mitochondria b. Ribosome c. Nucleolus d. Nucleus Cytoplasm 4. Which of the following can remove proteins attached to the cell’s bilayer by dissolving the layer itself? a. Peripheral membrane proteins b. Integral membrane proteins c. Glycoproteins d. Cell adhesion molecules 5. Which of the following can bind to plasma membrane receptors? a. Oxygen b. Ribosomes c. Amphipathic lipids d. Ligands 6. A nurse is reviewing a report from a patient with metastatic cancer. What alternation in the extracellular matrix would suNppoRrt thIe dGiagnBCs ofMmetastatic cancer? a. Decreased fibronectin b. Increased collagen c. Decreased elastin d. Increased glycoproteins 7. Which form of cell communication is used to relate to other cells in direct physical contact? a. Cell junction b. Gap junction c. Desmosome d. Tight junction 8. Pancreatic beta cells secrete insulin, which inhibits secretion of glucagon from neighboring alpha cells. This action is an example of which of the following signaling types? a. Paracrine b. Autocrine c. Neurohormonal d. Hormonal 9. In cellular metabolism, each enzyme has a high affinity for a: a. solute. b. substrate. c. receptor. d. ribosome. 10. An athlete runs a marathon, after which his muscles feel fatigued and unable to contract. The athlete asks the nurse why this happened. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that the problem is result of a deficiency of: a. GTP b. AMP c. ATP d. GMP 11. Which phase of catabolism produces the most ATP? a. Digestion b. Glycolysis c. Oxidation d. Citric acid cycle 12. A nurse is teaching the staff about the phases of cellular catabolism. Which phases should the nurse include? a. Digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, and the citric acid cycle b. Diffusion, osmosis, and mediated transport c. S phase, G phase, and M phase d. Metabolic absorption, respiration, and excretion 13. A runner has depleted all the oxygen available for muscle energy. Which of the following will facilitate his continued muscle performance? a. Electron-transport chain b. Aerobic glycolysis c. Anaerobic glycolysis d. Oxidative phosphorylation 14. A faculty member asks a student to identify the appropriate term for the movement of a solute from an area of greater to lesser concentration. Which answer indicates the nursing student understood the teaching? a. Osmosis b. Diffusion c. Hydrostatic pressure d. Active transport 15. Which description accurately describes electrolytes? a. Small lipid-soluble molecules b. Large protein molecules c. Micronutrients used to produce ATP d. Electrically charged molecules 16. A nurse is reading a chart and sees the term oncotic pressure. The nurse recalls that oncotic pressure (colloid osmotic pressure) is determined by: a. the concentration of sodium. b. plasma proteins. c. hydrostatic pressure. d. the availability of membrane transporter proteins. 17. A patient has a body fluid of 300 mOsm/kg. This lab result is measuring: a. osmolality. b. osmolarity. c. osmotic pressure. d. oncotic pressure. 18. A nurse is discussing the movement of fluid across the arterial end of capillary membranes into the interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary. Which process of fluid movement is the nurse describing? a. Hydrostatic pressure b. Osmosis c. Diffusion d. Active transport 19. How are potassium and sodium transported across plasma membranes? a. By passive electrolyte channels b. By coupled channels c. By adenosine triphosphate enzyme (ATPase) d. By diffusion 20. The ion transporter that moves Na+ and Ca2+ simultaneously in the same direction is an example of which of the following types of transport? a. Biport b. Uniport c. Antiport d. Symport 21. During which process are bacteria engulfed for ingestion? a. Endocytosis b. Pinocytosis c. Phagocytosis d. Exocytosis 22. Some cancer drugs work during the cell cycle phase where nuclear and cytoplasmic divisions occur. What is this cell cycle phase called? a. G1 b. S c. M d. G2 23. Which causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential that initiates an action potential? a. Potassium gates open, and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive. b. Sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive. c. Sodium gates close, allowing potassium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative. d. Potassium gates close, allowing sodium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative. 24. A cell is isolated, and electroNphUyRsiSolIogNyGstTuBCreOvMeal that the resting membrane potential is 70 mV. The predominant intracellular ion is Na+, and the predominant extracellular ion is K+. With voltage change, which of the following would result in an action potential? a. K+ rushing into the cell b. Na+ rushing into the cell c. Na+ rushing out of the cell d. K+ rushing out of the cell 25. A nurse teaching the staff about platelet-derived growth factor includes information that platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) stimulates the production of: a. platelets. b. epidermal cells. c. connective tissue cells. d. fibroblast cells. 26. The phase of the cell cycle during which the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are pulled apart is referred to as: a. anaphase. b. telophase. c. prophase. d. metaphase. 27. What is the role of cytokines in cell reproduction? a. Provide growth factor for tissue growth and development. b. Block progress of cell reproduction through the cell cycle. c. Restrain cell growth and development. d. Provide nutrients for cell growth and development. 28. A biopsy of the lung bronchi revealed ciliated epithelial cells that are capable of secretion and absorption. These cells are called columnar epithelium. a. simple b. ciliated simple c. stratified d. pseudostratified ciliated 29. A student is reviewing functions of the cell. The student would be correct in identifying a chief function of the nerve cell as: a. sensory interpretation. b. conductivity. c. maintenance of homeostasis. d. communication. 1. A nurse recalls that the basic types of tissues are: (select all that apply) a. nerve. b. epithelial. c. mucosal. d. connective. e. skeletal. f. muscle. 2. Characteristics of prokaryotes include which of the following? (select all that apply) a. They contain no organelles. b. Their nuclear material is NnoUt RenScIasNedGbTyBCcOleMar membrane. c. They contain a distinct nucleus. d. They contain histones. e. They contain a cellular membrane. 1. A nurse recalls the basic components of DNA are: a. pentose sugars and four phosphate bases. b. a phosphate molecule, deoxyribose, and four nitrogenous bases. c. adenine, guanine, and purine. d. codons, oxygen, and cytosine. 2. Which of the following mutations have the most significant effect on protein synthesis? a. Base pair substitutions b. Silent mutations c. Intron mutations d. Frameshift mutations 3. The base components of DNA are: a. A, G, C, and U. b. P, G, C, and T. c. A, G, C, and T. d. X, XX, XY, and YY. 4. A DNA strand has a region with the sequence ATCGGAT. Which of the following would be a complementary strand? a. CGATACGT b. TAGCCTAG c. TUGCCTUG d. UAGCCUAG 5. A biologist is explaining how RNA directs the synthesis of protein. Which process is the biologist describing? a. Termination b. Transcription c. Translocation d. Translation 6. What is the result of homologous chromosomes failing to separate during meiosis? a. Neurofibromatosis b. Nondisjunction c. Polyploidy d. Conjoined twins 7. A cell that does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes is called a cell. a. diploid b. euploid c. polyploid d. haploid 8. A 20-year-old pregnant female gives birth to a stillborn child. Autopsy reveals that the fetus has 92 chromosomes. What term may be on the autopsy report to describe this condition? a. Biploidy b. Triploidy c. Tetraploidy d. Aneuploidy 9. The condition in which an extra portion of a chromosome is present in each cell is called: a. reciprocal translocation. b. partial trisomy. c. inversion. d. Down syndrome. 10. After a geneticist talks to a patient about being a chromosomal mosaic, the patient asks the nurse what that means. How should the nurse respond? You may genetic disease(s). a. only be a carrier of the b. have a mild form of the c. have two d. be sterile as a result of the 11. What is the most common cause of Down syndrome? a. Paternal nondisjunction b. Maternal translocations c. Maternal nondisjunction d. Paternal translocations 12. A patient wants to know the risk factors for Down syndrome. What is the nurse’s best response? a. Fetal exposure to mutagens in the uterus. b. Increased paternal age. c. Family history of Down syndrome. d. Pregnancy in women over age 35. 13. A 13-year-old girl has a karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome present. What medical diagnosis will the nurse observe on the chart? a. Down syndrome b. Cri du chat syndrome c. Turner syndrome d. Fragile X syndrome 14. What genetic disorder is the result if an individual possesses an XXY chromosome configuration? a. Turner b. Klinefelter c. Down d. Fragile X 15. A patient demonstrates severe mental retardation caused by a deletion of part of chromosome 5. What genetic disorder will the nurse see documented in the chart? a. Prader-Willi syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Cri du chat syndrome d. Trisomy X 16. An aide asks the nurse why people who have neurofibromatosis will show varying degrees of the disease. Which genetic principle should the nurse explain to the aide? a. Penetrance b. Expressivity c. Dominance d. Recessiveness 17. Cystic fibrosis is caused by what gene abnormality? a. X-linked dominant b. X-linked recessive c. Autosomal dominant d. Autosomal recessive 18. A 15-year-old female is diagnosed with Prader-Willi syndrome. This condition is an example of: a. genomic imprinting. b. an autosomal recessive trait. c. an autosomal dominant trait. d. a sex-linked trait. 19. A patient, age 9, is admitted to a pediatric unit with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. When planning care the nurse recalls the patient inherited this condition through a trait that is: a. X-linked dominant. b. X-influenced. c. X-limited. d. X-linked recessive. 20. A child is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. History reveals that the child’s parents are siblings. Cystic fibrosis was most likely the result of: a. X-inactivation. b. genomic imprinting. c. consanguinity. d. obligate carriers. 21. A 12-year-old male is diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome. His karyotype would reveal which of the following? a. XY b. XX c. XYY d. XXY 22. To express a polygenic trait: a. genes must interact with the environment. b. several genes must act together. c. multiple mutations must occur in the same family. d. penetrance must occur. 23. What is the diagnosis of a 13-year-old female who has a karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome present? Her features include a short stature, widely spaced nipples, and a reduced carrying angle at the elbow. a. Down syndrome b. Cri du chat syndrome c. Turner syndrome d. Klinefelter syndrome 24. The gradual increase in height among the human population over the past 100 years is an example of: a. a polygenic trait. b. a multifactorial trait. c. crossing over. d. recombination. 25. When discussing DNA replication, which enzyme is most important? a. RNA polymerase b. Transfer RNA c. Messenger RNA d. DNA polymerase 26. The regions of the heterogeneous nuclear RNA that must be spliced out to form functional RNA are called: a. promoter sites. b. introns. c. exons. d. anticodon. 27. A 50-year-old male was recently diagnosed with Huntington disease. Transmission of this disease is associated with: a. penetrance of a trait. b. recurrence risk. c. expressivity. d. delayed age of onset. 28. What type of mutation does not change the amino acid sequence and thus has no observable consequence? a. Frameshift b. Spontaneous c. Silent d. Missense 29. A nurse is reviewing the pedigree chart. When checking for a proband, what is the nurse looking for? a. The person who is first diagnosed with a genetic disease. b. The individual who has a disease gene but is phenotypically normal. c. The phenotype of genetic material. d. The codominance. 30. Which of the following disorders is manifested primarily in males? a. Cystic fibrosis b. Neurofibromatosis c. Muscular dystrophy d. Klinefelter syndrome 1. When the nurse is teaching the staff about X-linked recessive disorders, which information should the nurse include? (select all that apply) a. The trait is seen much more often in females than in males. b. The trait is never transmitted from father to son. c. The gene can be transmitted through a series of carrier females. d. The gene is passed from an affected father to all his daughters. e. The trait never skips generations. 1. When considering abnormal epigenetic modifications, what factor is currently being viewed as strongly associated with the development of some cancers? a. Family genetics b. Lifestyle choices c. Environmental stressors d. Emotional coping skills 2. Housekeeping genes are vital to the function and maintenance of all the body’s cells. What characteristic is associated with these genes? a. They lack encoding histones. b. They are transcriptionally active. c. Ribosomal RNA genes are absent. d. Epigenetic silencing has NoccuRrreId. 3. What characteristic of Prader-Willi syndrome is not a characteristic of Angelman syndrome? a. It is inherited from the father. b. Mental retardation is observable. c. Imprinting of an abnormal chromosome 15. d. Seizure disorder is present. 4. Research has demonstrated that neural stem cells have an impaired ability to differentiate into functional neurons when subjected to: a. ethanol. b. marijuana. c. insufficient nutrients. d. poor oxygenation. 5. What is the role of inactive MLH1 in the development of some forms of inherited colon cancer? a. Deletion of a nucleotide repeat in the DUX4 gene. b. DNA damage is left unrepaired. c. Expansion in the number of cytosine-guanine (CG) dinucleotide. d. Abnormalities of chromosome 11p15.5 that lead to downregulation of IGF2. 6. Mutations in the encoding of histone-modifying proteins have been shown to influence the development of what congenial condition? a. Cleft palate b. Acephalous c. Heart disease d. Webbed digits 7. Which embryonic stem cell characteristic is referred to as totipotent? a. Ability to differentiate into any type of somatic cell. b. Ability to repair its own damaged DNA. c. Ability to determine which parental chromosome copy it will imprint. d. Ability to minimize the impact of poor in utero nutrition. 8. 5-Azacytidine has demonstrated promise in the treatment of which form of cancer? a. Liver b. Colon c. Gallbladder d. Pancreatic 9. During which stage of human development does the role of epigenetics have the greatest impact on the development of epigenetic abnormalities? a. Infancy b. Puberty c. In utero d. Middle age 10. What comorbid condition does an individual diagnosed with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome have an increased risk of developing? a. Cancer b. Diabetes c. Depression d. Food allergies 1. Screening tools that are epigenetically based have shown promise in diagnosing which types of cancer? (select all that apply) a. Colon b. Breast c. Skin d. Bladder e. Prostate 2. Research has provided support for the theory that epigenetic modifications can result from deficient in utero nutrition causing which chronic disease? (select all that apply) a. Obesity b. Asthma c. Cardiovascular disease d. Diabetes e. Crohn’s disease 1. A report comes back indicating that muscular atrophy has occurred. A nurse recalls that muscular atrophy involves a decrease in muscle cell: a. number. b. size. c. vacuoles. d. lipofuscin. 2. During childhood, the thymus decreases in size, and this is referred to as what type of atrophy? a. Physiologic b. Pathologic c. Disuse d. Neurogenic 3. When planning care for a cardiac patient, the nurse knows that in response to an increased workload, cardiac myocardial cells will experience hypertrophy which is an: a. increase in size. b. decrease in length. c. increase in excitability. d. decrease in number. 4. A 55-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking is examined for respiratory disturbance. Examination of his airway (bronchial) reveals that stratified squamous epithelial cells have replaced the normal columnar ciliated cells. This type of cellular adaptation is called: a. anaplasia. b. hyperplasia. c. metaplasia. d. dysplasia. 5. When planning care for the pregnant patient, the nurse will recall that the mammary glands enlarge as a consequence of: a. compensatory hyperplasia. b. hormonal hyperplasia. c. hormonal anaplasia. d. compensatory anaplasia. 6. A 24-year-old female presents with excessive menstrual bleeding. The physician identified endometrial changes that are due to hormonal imbalances. These cellular changes would be referred to as: a. dysplasia. b. pathologic dysplasia. c. hyperplasia. d. pathologic hyperplasia. 7. A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with hepatocellular cancer secondary to hepatitis C. If the cancerous region of the liver is removed, the remaining cells would undergo: a. pathologic hyperplasia. b. pathologic metaplasia. c. compensatory hyperplasia. d. compensatory aplasia. 8. A 40-year-old female’s Pap smear indicates abnormal changes in the shape and organization of cervical cells. Which term would be used to identify this type of change? a. Metaplasia b. Atrophy c. Hypertrophy d. Dysplasia 9. A 75-year-old male presents with chest pain on exertion. The chest pain is most likely due to hypoxic injury secondary to: a. malnutrition. b. free radicals. c. ischemia. d. chemical toxicity. 10. A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury that causes cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process? a. Adaptation b. Calcification c. Apoptosis d. Necrosis 11. Sodium and water accumulation in an injured cell are a direct result of: a. decreased ATP production. b. karyorrhexis. c. ribosome detachment. d. dehydration. 12. The early dilation (swelling) of the cell’s endoplasmic reticulum results in: a. increased aerobic metabolism. b. failure of DNA. c. reduced protein synthesis. d. increased Na+-K+ pump function. ANS: C 13. A 52-year-old male suffered a myocardial infarction secondary to atherosclerosis and ischemia. Once blood flow is returned to the damaged heart, reperfusion injury occurs as a result of: a. oxidation stress. b. vacuolation. c. decreased intracellular calcium. d. lipid acceptor proteins. 14. A family presents to their primary care provider reporting headache, nausea, weakness, tinnitus, and vomiting. Which of the following would be the most likely explanation for these symptoms? a. Lead exposure b. Carbon monoxide poisoning c. Ethanol exposure d. Mercury poisoning 15. A common pathway of irreversible cell injury involves increased intracellular: a. sodium. b. potassium. c. magnesium. d. calcium. 16. A 50-year-old male sustained a closed head injury as a result of a motor vehicle accident. CT scan revealed a collection of blood between the inner surface of the dura mater and the surface of the brain. Which type of injury will the nurse be caring for? a. Subdural hematoma b. Epidural hematoma c. Contusion d. Abrasion 17. A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a jagged sharp-force injury that is longer than it is deep. Which type of wound will the nurse be caring for? a. Stab wound b. Incised wound c. Puncture wound d. Chopping wound 18. A 30-year-old female presents with a gunshot wound to the head. The wound has seared edges and a deep penetration of smoke and gunpowder fragments. This wound would be documented as a(n): a. exit. b. intermediate range entrance. c. contact range entrance. d. indeterminate range entrance. 19. A 15-year-old female presents to the ER following a physical assault. She has internal damage to the neck with deep bruising. X-ray reveals fractures of the hyoid bone and tracheal and cricoid cartilage. Which of the following most likely caused her injuries? a. Chemical asphyxiation b. Choking asphyxiation c. Ligature strangulation d. Manual strangulation 20. A 55-year-old male has swelling of the feet. Which of the following aided in the development of swelling? a. Increased ATP b. Chloride movement out of the cell c. Na+ movement into the cell d. Decreased oncotic pressure 21. A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Biopsy of the tumor reveals Russell bodies, and laboratory testing reveals kidney dysfunction. Which substance should the nurse monitor as it is accumulating in the patient’s body? a. Glycogen b. Protein c. Pigment d. Melanin 22. A newborn male is diagnosed with albinism based on skin, eye, and hair appearance. Which finding will support this diagnosis? a. Increased melanin b. Increased hemoproteins c. Inability to convert tyrosine to DOPA (3,4-dihydroxyphenylalanine) d. Inability to convert bile to bilirubin 23. A 23-year-old male develops a black eye following a fight. When the aide asks the nurse why this occurred, the nurse’s best response is that the bruising is due to an accumulation of: a. transferrin. b. bilirubin. c. albumin. d. hemosiderin. 24. Liquefactive necrosis occurs in the brain because: a. debris is not digested by hydrolases. b. of protein denaturation. c. it is rich in hydrolytic enzymes and lipids. d. ischemia results in chemical injury. 25. A 2-year-old swallowed watch batteries. Following ingestion, kidney function was impaired, and the heart began to fail. Which of the following was the most likely cause? a. Karyorrhexis b. Coagulative necrosis c. Ammonia accumulation d. Caseous necrosis 26. A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following exposure to an infected inmate. On examination, tissues were soft and granular (like clumped cheese). Which of the following is the most likely cause? a. Coagulative necrosis b. Liquefactive necrosis c. Caseous necrosis d. Autonecrosis 27. A 50-year-old female became infected with Clostridium bacteria and died a week later. Examination of her red blood cells revealed lysis of membranes. Which of the following was the most likely cause of her death? a. Fat necrosis b. Wet gangrene c. Gangrenous necrosis d. Gas gangrene 28. While reading a textbook, a student reads the term apoptosis. The student recalls that apoptosis is a condition in which cells program themselves to: a. atrophy. b. die. c. regenerate. d. age. 29. A 50-year-old male intravenous drug user is diagnosed with hepatitis C. Examination of the liver reveals cell death secondary to: a. fat necrosis. b. physiologic apoptosis. c. infection-induced apoptosis. d. pyknosis. 30. What principle should the nurse remember when trying to distinguish aging from diseases? a. It is difficult to tell the difference because both processes are believed to result from cell injury. b. It is easy to tell normal processes from abnormal processes. c. Disease, unlike aging, has a genetic component. d. Aging is defined as exceeding life expectancy, but not maximal life span. 31. When a nurse observes muscle stiffening occurring within 6–14 hours after death, the nurse should document this finding as the presence of: a. livor mortis. b. gangrene. c. algor mortis. d. rigor mortis. 32. When a nurse is checking a uNrinaRlysiIs, thGe fiBnd.iCng tMhat would alert the nurse to cellular injury is the presence of: a. slight glucose. b. excessive protein. c. blood. d. urea. 33. An 86-year-old female patient has the wasting syndrome of aging, making her vulnerable to falls, functional decline, disease, and death. The nurse knows this patient is experiencing: a. frailty. b. sarcopenia. c. somatic death. d. cellular aging. 34. Confirmation of somatic death is based on: a. presence of algor mortis. b. presence of livor mortis. c. complete cessation of respiration and circulation. d. change in skin color to pale yellow. 1. A patient has been reading on the Internet that light to moderate intake of alcohol is cardioprotective. When the patient asks the nurse what this means, the nurse should respond that the heart is protected by NwhiRch oIf thGe foBCingMmechanisms? (select all that apply) a. Increased levels of high-density lipoprotein cholesterol b. Prevention of clot formation c. Reduction in platelet aggregation d. Decrease in blood pressure e. Increased collateral circulation f. Decreased folate absorption 2. After ingestion of lead, what organ systems should the nurse monitor because they are the most sensitive to the effects of lead? (select all that apply) a. Heart b. Lungs c. Liver d. Kidneys e. Brain f. Hematopoietic 1. A nurse is reviewing lab reports. The nurse recalls blood plasma is located in which of the following fluid compartments? a. Intracellular fluid (ICF) b. Extracellular fluid (ECF) c. Interstitial fluid d. Intravascular fluid 2. A 35-year-old male weighs 70 kg. Approximately how much of this weight is considered the total volume of body water? a. 5 L b. 10 L c. 28 L d. 42 L 3. While planning care for elderly individuals, the nurse remembers the elderly are at a higher risk for developing dehydration because they have: a. a higher total body water volume. b. decreased muscle mass. c. increased thirst. d. an increased tendency toward developing edema. 4. Which of the following patients should the nurse assess for decreased oncotic pressure in the capillaries? A patient with: a. a high-protein diet. b. liver failure. c. low blood pressure. d. low blood glucose. 5. Water movement between the ICF and ECF compartments is determined by: a. osmotic forces. b. plasma oncotic pressure. c. antidiuretic hormone. d. buffer systems. 6. An experiment was designed to test the effects of the Starling forces on fluid movement. Which of the following alterations would result in fluid moving into the interstitial space? a. Increased capillary oncotic pressure. b. Increased interstitial hydrostatic pressure. c. Decreased capillary hydrNosUtaRticSpIreNsGsuTreB. .COM d. Increased interstitial oncotic pressure. ANS: D 7. When planning care for a dehydrated patient, the nurse remembers that the principle of water balance is closely related to the balance of: a. potassium. b. chloride. c. bicarbonate. d. sodium. 8. A 70-year-old male with chronic renal failure presents with edema. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition? a. Increased capillary oncotic pressure. b. Decreased interstitial oncotic pressure. c. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure. d. Increased interstitial hydrostatic pressure. 9. A 10-year-old male is brought to the emergency room (ER) incoherent and semiconscious. CT scan reveals that he is suffering from cerebral edema. This type of edema is referred to as: a. localized edema. b. generalized edema. c. pitting edema. d. lymphedema. 10. A nurse is teaching the staff about antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Which information should the nurse include? Secretion of ADH is stimulated by: a. increased serum potassium. b. increased plasma osmolality. c. decreased renal blood flow. d. generalized edema. 11. Which statement by the staff indicates teaching was successful concerning aldosterone? Secretion of aldosterone results in: a. decreased plasma osmolality. b. increased serum potassium levels. c. increased blood volume. d. localized edema. 12. A 25-year-old male is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting tumor of the adrenal cortex. Which finding would the nurse expect to see in the lab results? a. Decreased blood volume b. Decreased blood K+ levels c. Increased urine Na+ levels d. Increased white blood cells 13. A patient has been searching on the Internet about natriuretic hormones. When the patient asks the nurse what these hormones do, how should the nurse respond? Natriuretic hormones affect the balance of: a. calcium. b. sodium. c. magnesium. d. potassium. 14. A 5-year-old male presents to the ER with delirium and sunken eyes. After diagnosing him with severe dehydration, the primary care provider orders fluid replacement. The nurse administers a hypertonic intravenous solution. Which of the following would be expected? a. Symptoms subside quickly b. Increased ICF volume c. Decreased ECF volume d. Intracellular dehydration 15. Which of the following patients is the most at risk for developing hypernatremia? A patient with: a. vomiting. b. diuretic use. c. dehydration. d. hypoaldosteronism. 16. Which of the following conditions would cause the nurse to monitor for hyperkalemia? a. Excess aldosterone b. Acute acidosis c. Insulin usage d. Metabolic alkalosis