COURSE CODE: NR 283 EXAM TYPE QUESTIONS
COURSE TITLE: Pathophysiology Final Exam — Key Concepts 130 Questions
INSTITUTION: Chamberlain College of Nursing
CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING
NR 283
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
FINAL EXAM — KEY CONCEPTS
▣ INSTRUCTIONS
1 This final exam review contains 130 multiple-choice questions.
2 Read each question carefully and select the best answer.
3 Focus on prioritization, safety, and clinical judgment.
4 Answers with rationales are provided after each question.
5 Review all rationales, including why incorrect options are wrong.
6 Use this as a self-assessment tool before your proctored exam.
A MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (130 QUESTIONS)
Choose the best answer for each question. Answers and rationales follow each item.
1. Which of the following best describes fibrinolysis?
A. The process that breaks down and removes blood clots once they are no longer needed, helping to restore normal blood flow
B. The process of forming blood clots
C. The process of platelet formation
D. The process of red blood cell formation
CORRECT ANSWER A — The process that breaks down and removes blood clots once they are no longer needed, helping to
restore normal blood flow.
RATIONALE
Fibrinolysis is the process that breaks down and removes blood clots once they are no longer needed, helping to restore normal blood
flow. Option B describes coagulation. Options C and D are incorrect.
,2. Which of the following best describes fluid and electrolyte disorders?
A. Imbalances in the amount of water and minerals, such as sodium, potassium, and chloride, in the body; the kidneys play a major
role in regulating these balances
B. Only imbalances in water
C. Only imbalances in potassium
D. Only imbalances in sodium
CORRECT ANSWER A — Imbalances in the amount of water and minerals, such as sodium, potassium, and chloride, in the body;
the kidneys play a major role in regulating these balances.
RATIONALE
Fluid and electrolyte disorders refer to imbalances in the amount of water and minerals, such as sodium, potassium, and chloride, in the
body. The kidneys play a major role in regulating these balances. Options B, C, and D are incomplete.
3. Which of the following best describes COPD?
A. A chronic and progressive disorder where airflow in the lungs is persistently obstructed; includes emphysema and chronic
bronchitis
B. An acute infection of the lungs
C. A type of asthma
D. A benign lung tumor
CORRECT ANSWER A — A chronic and progressive disorder where airflow in the lungs is persistently obstructed; includes
emphysema and chronic bronchitis.
RATIONALE
COPD, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, is a chronic and progressive disorder where airflow in the lungs is persistently obstructed.
This condition includes emphysema and chronic bronchitis. Options B, C, and D are incorrect.
4. Which of the following best describes Streptococcus pneumoniae?
A. A type of bacteria that is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia
B. A virus that causes influenza
C. A fungus that causes pneumonia
D. A parasite that causes pneumonia
CORRECT ANSWER A — A type of bacteria that is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia.
RATIONALE
Streptococcus pneumoniae is a type of bacteria that is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It can infect the lungs
and cause inflammation, leading to typical symptoms like cough, fever, and shortness of breath. Options B, C, and D are incorrect.
,5. Which of the following best describes ischemia?
A. Reduced blood supply to a tissue or organ, resulting in decreased delivery of oxygen and nutrients needed for normal cell
metabolism
B. Increased blood supply to a tissue
C. Normal blood flow
D. Excess oxygen delivery
CORRECT ANSWER A — Reduced blood supply to a tissue or organ, resulting in decreased delivery of oxygen and nutrients
needed for normal cell metabolism.
RATIONALE
Ischemia is a reduced blood supply to a tissue or organ, resulting in decreased delivery of oxygen and nutrients that are needed for normal
cell metabolism. Options B, C, and D are incorrect.
6. Which of the following are complications of chronic hepatitis?
A. Liver fibrosis, cirrhosis, liver failure, and an increased risk of liver cancer
B. Kidney failure only
C. Heart failure only
D. Lung disease only
CORRECT ANSWER A — Liver fibrosis, cirrhosis, liver failure, and an increased risk of liver cancer.
RATIONALE
Chronic hepatitis complication refers to health problems that develop as a result of long-term inflammation of the liver caused by viral
hepatitis. These complications may include liver fibrosis, cirrhosis, liver failure, and an increased risk of liver cancer. Options B, C, and D are
incorrect.
7. Which of the following best describes the INR test in cirrhosis?
A. Measures how long it takes blood to clot; an elevated INR can indicate impaired liver synthesis of clotting factors
B. Measures blood glucose
C. Measures kidney function
D. Measures thyroid function
CORRECT ANSWER A — Measures how long it takes blood to clot; an elevated INR can indicate impaired liver synthesis of
clotting factors.
RATIONALE
INR (International Normalized Ratio) is a blood test that measures how long it takes blood to clot. In cirrhosis, an elevated INR can indicate
impaired liver synthesis of clotting factors. Options B, C, and D are incorrect.
, 8. Which of the following best describes the cardiac cycle?
A. The sequence of events that occur from the beginning of one heartbeat to the start of the next, including contraction and
relaxation of the atria and ventricles
B. The sequence of electrical signals only
C. The sequence of blood flow through the lungs only
D. The sequence of kidney filtration only
CORRECT ANSWER A — The sequence of events that occur from the beginning of one heartbeat to the start of the next, including
contraction and relaxation of the atria and ventricles.
RATIONALE
The cardiac cycle is the sequence of events that occur from the beginning of one heartbeat to the start of the next, including contraction
and relaxation of the atria and ventricles. Options B, C, and D are incorrect.
9. Which of the following best describes AIDS?
A. The most advanced stage of HIV infection, diagnosed when the immune system is severely damaged, often indicated by a CD4
count below 200 cells/mm³ or the presence of certain opportunistic infections or cancers
B. The earliest stage of HIV infection
C. A bacterial infection of the lungs
D. An autoimmune disorder
CORRECT ANSWER A — The most advanced stage of HIV infection, diagnosed when the immune system is severely damaged,
often indicated by a CD4 count below 200 cells/mm³ or the presence of certain opportunistic infections or cancers.
RATIONALE
AIDS, or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, is the most advanced stage of HIV infection. It is diagnosed when the immune system is
severely damaged, often indicated by a CD4 count below 200 cells/mm³ or the presence of certain opportunistic infections or cancers.
Options B, C, and D are incorrect.
10. Which of the following best describes antiviral response?
A. The ways in which the immune system detects and fights viruses, including production of interferons, activation of natural killer
cells, and the use of cytotoxic T lymphocytes
B. The body's response to bacteria only
C. A type of antibiotic medication
D. A type of immune suppression
CORRECT ANSWER A — The ways in which the immune system detects and fights viruses, including production of interferons,
activation of natural killer cells, and the use of cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
RATIONALE
Antiviral response refers to the ways in which the immune system detects and fights viruses. Key components include the production of
interferons, activation of natural killer cells, and the use of cytotoxic T lymphocytes, all of which help stop viruses from entering or
multiplying within host cells. Options B, C, and D are incorrect.
COURSE TITLE: Pathophysiology Final Exam — Key Concepts 130 Questions
INSTITUTION: Chamberlain College of Nursing
CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING
NR 283
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
FINAL EXAM — KEY CONCEPTS
▣ INSTRUCTIONS
1 This final exam review contains 130 multiple-choice questions.
2 Read each question carefully and select the best answer.
3 Focus on prioritization, safety, and clinical judgment.
4 Answers with rationales are provided after each question.
5 Review all rationales, including why incorrect options are wrong.
6 Use this as a self-assessment tool before your proctored exam.
A MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (130 QUESTIONS)
Choose the best answer for each question. Answers and rationales follow each item.
1. Which of the following best describes fibrinolysis?
A. The process that breaks down and removes blood clots once they are no longer needed, helping to restore normal blood flow
B. The process of forming blood clots
C. The process of platelet formation
D. The process of red blood cell formation
CORRECT ANSWER A — The process that breaks down and removes blood clots once they are no longer needed, helping to
restore normal blood flow.
RATIONALE
Fibrinolysis is the process that breaks down and removes blood clots once they are no longer needed, helping to restore normal blood
flow. Option B describes coagulation. Options C and D are incorrect.
,2. Which of the following best describes fluid and electrolyte disorders?
A. Imbalances in the amount of water and minerals, such as sodium, potassium, and chloride, in the body; the kidneys play a major
role in regulating these balances
B. Only imbalances in water
C. Only imbalances in potassium
D. Only imbalances in sodium
CORRECT ANSWER A — Imbalances in the amount of water and minerals, such as sodium, potassium, and chloride, in the body;
the kidneys play a major role in regulating these balances.
RATIONALE
Fluid and electrolyte disorders refer to imbalances in the amount of water and minerals, such as sodium, potassium, and chloride, in the
body. The kidneys play a major role in regulating these balances. Options B, C, and D are incomplete.
3. Which of the following best describes COPD?
A. A chronic and progressive disorder where airflow in the lungs is persistently obstructed; includes emphysema and chronic
bronchitis
B. An acute infection of the lungs
C. A type of asthma
D. A benign lung tumor
CORRECT ANSWER A — A chronic and progressive disorder where airflow in the lungs is persistently obstructed; includes
emphysema and chronic bronchitis.
RATIONALE
COPD, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, is a chronic and progressive disorder where airflow in the lungs is persistently obstructed.
This condition includes emphysema and chronic bronchitis. Options B, C, and D are incorrect.
4. Which of the following best describes Streptococcus pneumoniae?
A. A type of bacteria that is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia
B. A virus that causes influenza
C. A fungus that causes pneumonia
D. A parasite that causes pneumonia
CORRECT ANSWER A — A type of bacteria that is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia.
RATIONALE
Streptococcus pneumoniae is a type of bacteria that is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It can infect the lungs
and cause inflammation, leading to typical symptoms like cough, fever, and shortness of breath. Options B, C, and D are incorrect.
,5. Which of the following best describes ischemia?
A. Reduced blood supply to a tissue or organ, resulting in decreased delivery of oxygen and nutrients needed for normal cell
metabolism
B. Increased blood supply to a tissue
C. Normal blood flow
D. Excess oxygen delivery
CORRECT ANSWER A — Reduced blood supply to a tissue or organ, resulting in decreased delivery of oxygen and nutrients
needed for normal cell metabolism.
RATIONALE
Ischemia is a reduced blood supply to a tissue or organ, resulting in decreased delivery of oxygen and nutrients that are needed for normal
cell metabolism. Options B, C, and D are incorrect.
6. Which of the following are complications of chronic hepatitis?
A. Liver fibrosis, cirrhosis, liver failure, and an increased risk of liver cancer
B. Kidney failure only
C. Heart failure only
D. Lung disease only
CORRECT ANSWER A — Liver fibrosis, cirrhosis, liver failure, and an increased risk of liver cancer.
RATIONALE
Chronic hepatitis complication refers to health problems that develop as a result of long-term inflammation of the liver caused by viral
hepatitis. These complications may include liver fibrosis, cirrhosis, liver failure, and an increased risk of liver cancer. Options B, C, and D are
incorrect.
7. Which of the following best describes the INR test in cirrhosis?
A. Measures how long it takes blood to clot; an elevated INR can indicate impaired liver synthesis of clotting factors
B. Measures blood glucose
C. Measures kidney function
D. Measures thyroid function
CORRECT ANSWER A — Measures how long it takes blood to clot; an elevated INR can indicate impaired liver synthesis of
clotting factors.
RATIONALE
INR (International Normalized Ratio) is a blood test that measures how long it takes blood to clot. In cirrhosis, an elevated INR can indicate
impaired liver synthesis of clotting factors. Options B, C, and D are incorrect.
, 8. Which of the following best describes the cardiac cycle?
A. The sequence of events that occur from the beginning of one heartbeat to the start of the next, including contraction and
relaxation of the atria and ventricles
B. The sequence of electrical signals only
C. The sequence of blood flow through the lungs only
D. The sequence of kidney filtration only
CORRECT ANSWER A — The sequence of events that occur from the beginning of one heartbeat to the start of the next, including
contraction and relaxation of the atria and ventricles.
RATIONALE
The cardiac cycle is the sequence of events that occur from the beginning of one heartbeat to the start of the next, including contraction
and relaxation of the atria and ventricles. Options B, C, and D are incorrect.
9. Which of the following best describes AIDS?
A. The most advanced stage of HIV infection, diagnosed when the immune system is severely damaged, often indicated by a CD4
count below 200 cells/mm³ or the presence of certain opportunistic infections or cancers
B. The earliest stage of HIV infection
C. A bacterial infection of the lungs
D. An autoimmune disorder
CORRECT ANSWER A — The most advanced stage of HIV infection, diagnosed when the immune system is severely damaged,
often indicated by a CD4 count below 200 cells/mm³ or the presence of certain opportunistic infections or cancers.
RATIONALE
AIDS, or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, is the most advanced stage of HIV infection. It is diagnosed when the immune system is
severely damaged, often indicated by a CD4 count below 200 cells/mm³ or the presence of certain opportunistic infections or cancers.
Options B, C, and D are incorrect.
10. Which of the following best describes antiviral response?
A. The ways in which the immune system detects and fights viruses, including production of interferons, activation of natural killer
cells, and the use of cytotoxic T lymphocytes
B. The body's response to bacteria only
C. A type of antibiotic medication
D. A type of immune suppression
CORRECT ANSWER A — The ways in which the immune system detects and fights viruses, including production of interferons,
activation of natural killer cells, and the use of cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
RATIONALE
Antiviral response refers to the ways in which the immune system detects and fights viruses. Key components include the production of
interferons, activation of natural killer cells, and the use of cytotoxic T lymphocytes, all of which help stop viruses from entering or
multiplying within host cells. Options B, C, and D are incorrect.
